All 150 questions from UPPSC PCS Prelims 2024, GS Paper I. Each question has the correct answer and an explanation of why it is right and the other options are not. Try each one first, then open “Show answer and explanation”.
Answers with explanations are written by our team. Explanations still being checked by a subject expert are marked.
Consider the following Peshwas and arrange them in ascending chronological order:
1. Raghunath Rao (Raghoba)
2. Balaji Baji Rao
3. Narayan Rao
4. Balaji Vishwanath
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) 4, 2, 3, 1
Balaji Vishwanath (1713–20), Balaji Baji Rao 'Nanasaheb' (1740–61), Narayan Rao (1772–73) and Raghunath Rao (1773–74). Order: 4, 2, 3, 1.
Consider the following statements with reference to early trade:
1. There are references of numerous river-ports in ancient India.
2. There were large entrepots of goods and traffic.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2
Ancient texts mention many river ports (such as Champa, Tamralipti and Pratishthana) and large entrepots where goods were collected and redistributed. Both statements are correct.
Arrange the following Sen rulers of Bengal in ascending chronological order:
1. Ballal Sen
2. Lakshman Sen
3. Hemant Sen
4. Vijaya Sen
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
The Sena dynasty of Bengal: Hemanta Sena (founder), Vijaya Sena, Ballala Sena and Lakshmana Sena. Order: 3, 4, 1, 2.
Consider the following statements with reference to Bairam Khan:
1. Akbar gave the title of Khan-i-Khana to Bairam Khan.
2. This title was not given at the time of appointment of Bairam Khan as Vazir of Empire.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (c) Only 1
Akbar conferred the title Khan-i-Khanan on Bairam Khan when he became the regent and vakil (wazir) of the empire in 1556, so statement 2 is taken as wrong; verify against the key.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Write in descending order the following States on the basis of their population as per Census, 2011:
1. Bihar
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. West Bengal
Choose the correct answer with the help of the following codes:
Answer: (d) 3, 1, 4, 2
Census 2011: Uttar Pradesh about 19.98 crore, Bihar about 10.41 crore, West Bengal about 9.13 crore, (undivided) Andhra Pradesh about 8.46 crore. Order: 3, 1, 4, 2.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Human Development Report
B. World Economic Outlook
C. World Investment Report
D. Emissions Gap Report
List-II
1. International Monetary Fund
2. United Nations Environment Programme
3. United Nations Development Programme
4. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (a) 3 1 4 2
Human Development Report – UNDP; World Economic Outlook – IMF; World Investment Report – UNCTAD; Emissions Gap Report – UNEP. Code 3 1 4 2.
Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last activity:
1. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
2. Rural Employment Generation Programme
3. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana
4. Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) 3, 2, 1, 4
Prime Minister's Rozgar Yojana – 1993; Rural Employment Generation Programme – 1995; Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana – 2000; Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana – 2001. Order: 3, 2, 1, 4.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Economist/Author)
A. Myrdal
B. Hirschman
C. Kaldor
D. Adam Smith
List-II (Book)
1. Economic Theory and Under-developed Regions
2. The Strategy of Economic Development
3. Strategic Factors in Economic Development
4. The Wealth of Nations
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (a) 1 2 3 4
Myrdal – Economic Theory and Under-developed Regions (1957); Hirschman – The Strategy of Economic Development (1958); Kaldor – Strategic Factors in Economic Development (1967); Adam Smith – The Wealth of Nations (1776). Code 1 2 3 4.
Answer: (c) Number of species becomes small in ecological niche, if resources are sufficient.
When resources are sufficient, more species can share them, so the number of species rises, not falls. Statement (c) is therefore not true; the others describe niches correctly.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Biosphere Reserve)
A. Simlipal
B. Nokrek
C. Agasthyamalai
D. Manas
List-II (State)
1. Kerala
2. Odisha
3. Assam
4. Meghalaya
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (d) 2 4 1 3
Simlipal – Odisha; Nokrek – Meghalaya; Agasthyamalai – Kerala (and Tamil Nadu); Manas – Assam. Code 2 4 1 3.
Consider the following statements:
1. Scientific investigation depends on commitment to practical ideals.
2. Honesty is particularly important in science.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Scientific inquiry depends on commitment to ideals such as objectivity and verification, and honesty in recording and reporting data is essential to science. Both statements are taken as correct.
Answer: (d) Plant Kingdom - Phylum - Class - Order
The taxonomic hierarchy from higher to lower is Kingdom – Phylum (Division) – Class – Order – Family – Genus – Species.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Justice Party:
1. The Justice Party opposed Congress by calling it a Brahmin dominated organisation.
2. It claimed the same communal representation for non-Brahmins as the Morley-Minto reforms had given to Muslims.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2
The Justice Party (South Indian Liberal Federation, 1916) attacked the Congress as Brahmin-dominated and demanded communal representation for non-Brahmins like that given to Muslims by the Morley-Minto reforms. Both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Workers and Peasants Party:
1. The Workers and Peasants Party was formed in 1927 and was given the form of an All India Organisation.
2. The objective of this party was to work within the Congress so that it could be made a more revolution inclined party and an organisation of the common people.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2
Provincial Workers and Peasants Parties formed from 1925–27 were brought together into an all-India organisation (formally at Calcutta, December 1928). They aimed to work within the Congress and push it in a more radical, mass-based direction. Both statements are taken as correct; verify the date.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order:
1. East India Association
2. National Indian Association
3. Indian Society
4. Indian Association
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
East India Association (Dadabhai Naoroji, London, 1866); National Indian Association (Mary Carpenter, 1870); Indian Society (Anand Mohan Bose, London, 1872); Indian Association (Surendranath Banerjee, Calcutta, 1876). Order: 1, 2, 3, 4.
Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last activity:
1. Royal Indian Navy Revolt
2. Announcement of Cabinet Mission
3. Formation of Interim Government
4. Arrival of a UK Parliamentary Delegation in Delhi
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (b) 4, 1, 2, 3
British parliamentary delegation in Delhi – January 1946; RIN revolt – 18 February 1946; Cabinet Mission announced – 19 February 1946; Interim Government formed – 2 September 1946. Order: 4, 1, 2, 3.
With reference to the Age of Consent Act, 1891 consider the following statements:
1. It was Behramji Malabari, a Parsi reformer from Bombay, who advocated for this legislation.
2. The Act was supported by the extremist wing led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (c) Only 1
Behramji Malabari campaigned for the Age of Consent Act, 1891 (raising the age of consent to 12). Tilak opposed it as interference in Hindu customs. Only statement 1 is correct.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Shivaji had to face opposition from the big Deshmukhs.
Reason (R): These Deshmukhs were not in favour of an independent Maratha State and wanted to remain as feudal lords of Bijapur.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
The powerful Deshmukhs resisted Shivaji because they preferred to remain feudatories of Bijapur rather than serve an independent Maratha state. (R) explains (A).
Answer: (b) Increase of 2°C temperature in the Indian Ocean
Mass coral bleaching around the Andaman and Nicobar Islands followed marine heatwaves that raised sea temperatures about 2°C above normal; corals expel their algae under such heat stress.
Consider the following statements with respect to Ashoka:
1. The definition of Dhamma given by Ashoka is taken from "Rahulovada-sutta".
2. In the 14th year of his coronation, Ashoka appointed a new type of staff, called Dhamma-mahamatras.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2
Standard books state that Ashoka's definition of Dhamma follows the Buddha's advice in the Rahulovada Sutta, and that he created the Dhamma-mahamatras in the 14th year of his reign (Rock Edict V says 'thirteen years after consecration'). Both statements are taken as correct; verify.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Answer: (c) Article 155 - Removal of the Governor
Article 155 deals with the appointment of the Governor (by the President); there is no separate removal article. Articles 153 (Governor of states), 154 (executive power) and 156 (term of office) are correct.
Which of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India?
1. The President shall not be a member of either of the Houses of the Parliament.
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and both Houses.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2
Article 59(1): the President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament. Article 79: Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses. Both are stated.
Consider the following statements:
An Amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the:
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislatures
4. President of India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
Under Article 368, an amendment can be initiated only by introducing a bill in either House of Parliament. State legislatures and the President cannot initiate one.
Which of the following are the functions of the Election Commissioner of India?
1. Conduct of elections for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Conduct of elections of the Municipal Corporations and Municipalities.
3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of the above elections.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) None of the above
The Election Commission conducts elections to Parliament, state legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President. The Speaker, Deputy Speaker and Deputy Chairman are elected by the House members, and municipal elections are held by State Election Commissions. So none of these is its function.
Answer: (a) G.V.K. Rao Committee - Planning at the Block Level
The G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985) dealt with administrative arrangements for rural development, not block-level planning; block-level planning was the subject of the Dantwala Working Group (1978), which also reviewed regional rural banks. Santhanam (1963) – panchayat finances; Ashok Mehta (1977) – PRIs.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Answer: (d) Migration - Ecesis - Reaction - Stabilisation
Biotic succession proceeds through nudation, migration (invasion), ecesis (establishment), aggregation, competition and reaction, and finally stabilisation (climax).
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Relative humidity decreases with increasing air temperature.
Reason (R): Absolute humidity increases with increasing evaporation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Warmer air can hold more moisture, so for the same water vapour relative humidity falls as temperature rises (A true). More evaporation adds water vapour, raising absolute humidity (R true), but this does not explain (A).
Answer: (b) Pycnocline - Sea water density
A pycnocline is a layer where sea-water density changes rapidly with depth. Thermocline refers to water (not air) temperature, halocline to salinity, and ecocline to a gradient between ecosystems.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Planting Hearth
B. Cryophyte Steppe
C. World Floral Regions
D. Puszta Grassland
List-II
1. Hungary
2. Adolf Engler
3. C.O. Sauer
4. Arctic Tundra
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (b) 3 4 2 1
Planting hearths (agricultural origins) – Carl O. Sauer; cryophyte steppe – Arctic tundra; world floral regions – Adolf Engler; Puszta grassland – Hungary. Code 3 4 2 1.
Answer: (c) Muri - Chhattisgarh
The Muri alumina plant (Hindalco) is in Jharkhand, not Chhattisgarh. Alupuram (Kerala), Belagavi (Karnataka) and Hirakud (Odisha) are correct.
Answer: (b) Pin Valley - Jammu and Kashmir
Pin Valley National Park is in Lahaul-Spiti, Himachal Pradesh, not Jammu and Kashmir. The other pairs are correct.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Himalayas are still rising.
Reason (R): The Indian tectonic plate is colliding with the Eurasian plate.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
The Indian plate is still moving north into the Eurasian plate, about 4–5 cm a year, so the Himalayas are still rising. (R) explains (A).
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Coal Resources)
A. Hutar
B. Ib River
C. Tatapani-Ramkola
D. Umaria
List-II (States)
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Odisha
4. Jharkhand
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (c) 4 3 2 1
Hutar – Jharkhand; Ib River – Odisha; Tatapani-Ramkola – Chhattisgarh; Umaria – Madhya Pradesh. Code 4 3 2 1.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Canals)
A. Upper Bari Doab Canal
B. Sirhind Canal
C. Gurgaon Canal
D. Indira Gandhi Canal
List-II (Rivers)
1. Sutlej
2. Yamuna
3. Sutlej, Ravi, Beas
4. Ravi
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (c) 4 1 2 3
Upper Bari Doab Canal – Ravi (from Madhopur); Sirhind Canal – Sutlej (from Ropar); Gurgaon Canal – Yamuna; Indira Gandhi Canal – waters of the Sutlej, Beas and Ravi (from the Harike barrage). Code 4 1 2 3.
Answer: (b) Bihar's contribution to rice production - 15.7%
Bihar contributes only about 5–6% of India's rice, not 15.7% (West Bengal is the top producer, about 13–15%). West Bengal grows three rice crops (aus, aman, boro), and the 100 cm isohyet marks the western limit of rice. Uttar Pradesh is listed with the largest area under rice.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Consider the following statements with reference to cotton crops:
1. Cotton is mostly a Kharif crop.
2. Cotton crop requires moderate amounts of rainfall varying between 50-75 cm annually.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2
Cotton is mainly a kharif crop needing high temperature, a long frost-free period and moderate rainfall of about 50–75 cm (up to 100 cm). Both statements are correct.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Red soil denotes the second largest soil group of India.
Reason (R): Red soil surrounds the black soil in the south, east and north directions.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Red soils are the second largest soil group (after alluvium) and surround the black soils of the Deccan on the south, east and north. Both statements are true, but (R) describes their location and does not explain why they are the second largest group.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Name of the City)
A. Kanchipuram
B. Jaisalmer
C. Kodaikanal
D. Bhilai
List-II (Period of being Planned)
1. Post-independence
2. Colonial Period
3. Medieval Period
4. Ancient Period
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (b) 4 3 2 1
Kanchipuram – ancient (Pallava capital); Jaisalmer – medieval (12th century); Kodaikanal – colonial hill station (1845); Bhilai – post-independence steel township. Code 4 3 2 1.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Famous Local Storm)
A. Mango shower
B. Blossom shower
C. Norwesters
D. Loo
List-II (Place/Area)
1. Punjab to Bihar
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka Coastal Areas
4. West Bengal
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (c) 3 2 4 1
Mango showers – coastal Karnataka and Kerala (pre-monsoon, help mangoes ripen); blossom (cherry) showers – coffee areas of Kerala and Karnataka; Norwesters (Kalbaisakhi) – West Bengal; Loo – Punjab to Bihar. The code that fits is 3 2 4 1.
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Capital - Country
Answer: (b) Khartoum - Ethiopia
Khartoum is the capital of Sudan; Ethiopia's capital is Addis Ababa. The other pairs are correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Upper Gangetic agro-climatic region:
1. This region encompasses central and western Uttar Pradesh.
2. This region has more than 130% irrigation intensity and 140% cropping intensity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2
The Planning Commission's Upper Gangetic Plains agro-climatic region covers central and western Uttar Pradesh, with irrigation intensity of about 131% and cropping intensity of about 144%. Both statements are taken as correct.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Pass)
A. Debsa
B. Rohtang
C. Bara-lacha
D. Banihal
List-II (Height from Sea Level)
1. 5360 metres
2. 4850 metres
3. 3978 metres
4. 2832 metres
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (a) 1 3 2 4
Debsa about 5,360 m; Rohtang about 3,978 m; Bara-lacha La about 4,850 m; Banihal about 2,832 m. Code 1 3 2 4.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Jute is an indigenous plant of India.
Reason (R): Jute is a Kharif crop sown from February to June and harvested from July to October.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Jute is regarded as indigenous to the Indian subcontinent (Bengal delta), and it is a kharif crop sown about February–June and harvested July–October. Both are true, but the sowing season does not explain why it is indigenous.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Essayist)
A. Devana Bhatta
B. Hemadri
C. Madhvacharya
D. Ballal Sen
List-II (Treatise)
1. Dan Sagar
2. Parashar Madhav
3. Chaturvarga Chintamani
4. Smriti Chandrika
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (d) 4 3 2 1
Devanna Bhatta – Smriti Chandrika; Hemadri – Chaturvarga Chintamani; Madhavacharya – Parashara Madhaviya; Ballala Sena – Dana Sagara. Code 4 3 2 1.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Turkish invasion on India was successful.
Reason (R): There was no political unity in North India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
The Turkish invasions succeeded largely because North India was divided among rival Rajput states with no political unity, so they could not resist together. (R) explains (A).
Consider the following statements regarding Voice of Global South Summit (VOGSS):
1. India recently concluded its 2nd Voice of Global South Summit.
2. The term Global South is related to developed countries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (c) Only 1
India hosted the 2nd Voice of Global South Summit (virtually) in November 2023. The Global South refers to developing countries, mostly in Asia, Africa and Latin America, not developed ones. Only statement 1 is correct.
What does the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) emphasize regarding reductions in greenhouse gas (GHG) emission?
1. Gradual and limited reductions are enough.
2. Deep, rapid and sustained reductions are essential.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) Only 2
The IPCC (AR6) stresses that deep, rapid and sustained cuts in greenhouse gas emissions are needed to limit warming to 1.5°C or 2°C; gradual, limited cuts are not enough.
What does the term "Cereal Yield" refer to?
1. The amount of cereal crops produced per unit area of harvested land
2. The total production of cereal crops in a given country
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (c) Only 1
Cereal yield is output per unit of harvested area (e.g. kg per hectare), not total production.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the trend of unemployment rate in India between July-September, 2019 and July-September, 2022?
1. It remained the same.
2. It declined.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) 2 is true and 1 is false.
By the quarterly PLFS (urban, CWS), unemployment fell from about 8.4% in July–September 2019 to 7.2% in July–September 2022. So it declined, and did not remain the same.
Who prepares/publishes the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report?
1. World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF)
2. Oxford Poverty and World Health Organisation (WHO)
3. Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI)
4. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) 3 and 4
The global Multidimensional Poverty Index is published jointly by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and UNDP.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The concept of Sustainable Development was popularised by the Brundtland Report.
Reason (R): The Brundtland Report is also known as "The Limits to Growth".
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
The Brundtland Report 'Our Common Future' (1987) popularised sustainable development. 'The Limits to Growth' (1972) is a separate Club of Rome report, so (R) is false.
Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order:
1. World Heritage Day
2. World Thyroid Day
3. World No Tobacco Day
4. International Day of Light
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (b) 1, 4, 2, 3
World Heritage Day – 18 April; International Day of Light – 16 May; World Thyroid Day – 25 May; World No Tobacco Day – 31 May. Order: 1, 4, 2, 3.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Person)
A. Gopi Thotakura
B. Dipa Karmakar
C. Aroh Barjatya
D. Dev Patel
List-II (Reason)
1. First Indian Gymnast to win Gold at Asian Championship
2. Indian born NASA scientist who led the team to study solar ecliptic impact on ionosphere
3. First Indian Space Tourist
4. British actor who made his directorial debut with thriller "Monkey Man"
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (b) 3 1 2 4
Gopi Thotakura – first Indian space tourist (Blue Origin NS-25, May 2024); Dipa Karmakar – first Indian gymnast to win gold at the Asian Championships (2024); Aroh Barjatya – India-born NASA scientist who led a study of the solar eclipse's effect on the ionosphere; Dev Patel – directed 'Monkey Man'. Code 3 1 2 4.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): During 2023-24, Singapore emerged as the largest source of FDI to India.
Reason (R): The India Mauritius Tax Treaty amendment has brought a major shift in countries as major sources of FDI to India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Singapore was the largest source of FDI equity inflows to India in 2023-24 (about $11.8 billion), ahead of Mauritius. The 2016 amendment of the India–Mauritius tax treaty (source-based capital gains tax) shifted investment away from Mauritius, which explains Singapore's lead.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Answer: (a) Vaccine against Malaria developed by Serum Institute of India
R21/Matrix-M is a malaria vaccine developed by Oxford University and manufactured by the Serum Institute of India; WHO recommended it in 2023.
Answer: (b) Anasuya Sengupta
Anasuya Sengupta won Best Actress in Un Certain Regard at Cannes 2024 for 'The Shameless', the first Indian to do so.
With reference to RudraM-II Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an air-to-air missile.
2. It was tested in Rajasthan in May 2024.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer: (b) Neither 1 nor 2
RudraM-II is an air-to-surface missile, and it was test-fired from a Su-30MKI off the Odisha coast on 29 May 2024, not in Rajasthan. Both statements are wrong.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Newly Elected Head of the State)
A. Gitanas Nauseda
B. Luong Cuong
C. Halla Tomasdottir
D. Jose Raul Mulino
List-II (Country)
1. Iceland
2. Vietnam
3. Lithuania
4. Panama
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (c) 3 2 1 4
Gitanas Nauseda – Lithuania (re-elected 2024); Luong Cuong – Vietnam; Halla Tomasdottir – Iceland; Jose Raul Mulino – Panama. Code 3 2 1 4.
Answer: (b) Intertrappean beds - Fossils of sea plants and animals
The intertrappean beds between Deccan lava flows contain fossils of freshwater plants and animals (lake deposits), not marine ones. The thicknesses given for the upper, middle and lower traps follow the standard textbook figures.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Jet streams discovered during World War II are high altitude easterly winds.
Reason (R): Jet streams flow with a speed of 300-500 km/hour.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Jet streams are mainly high-altitude westerly winds (the tropical easterly jet is an exception), so (A) is false. They can reach about 300–500 km/h in their core in winter, so (R) is taken as true.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Country)
A. Spain - France
B. Switzerland
C. Bulgaria
D. Italy
List-II (Mountain)
1. Alps
2. Apennine
3. Pyrenees
4. Balkan
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (b) 3 1 4 2
Spain–France – Pyrenees; Switzerland – Alps; Bulgaria – Balkan; Italy – Apennines. Code 3 1 4 2.
Answer: (c) Terrestrial habitants
Plants and animals that live on land are terrestrial; those living in water are aquatic.
Answer: (a) Pivotal joint
The joint between the atlas and axis vertebrae at the top of the neck is a pivot joint, which lets the head turn side to side.
Answer: (b) Pathogens
Any disease-causing microorganism is called a pathogen. Bacteria, protozoa and archaea are groups that include many harmless members.
Answer: (d) Emulsion
Milk is an emulsion: tiny fat droplets dispersed in water.
Answer: (d) NaHCO₃
Baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate (sodium bicarbonate), NaHCO₃. Na₂CO₃ is washing soda (in hydrated form).
Answer: (c) Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
CPR stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation: chest compressions (and rescue breaths) given when the heart stops.
Answer: (a) Pulmonary vein
The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium; all other veins carry deoxygenated blood.
Answer: (d) Pancreas
Diabetes mellitus results from too little insulin from the pancreas (beta cells) or resistance to it.
Answer: (c) SARS-CoV-2
COVID-19 is caused by the coronavirus SARS-CoV-2. SARS-CoV-1 caused SARS (2003) and H5N1 is avian influenza.
Answer: (b) 2v₁v₂/(v₁ + v₂)
For equal distances d at speeds v₁ and v₂, total time is d/v₁ + d/v₂, so average speed = 2d ÷ (d/v₁ + d/v₂) = 2v₁v₂/(v₁ + v₂) (the harmonic mean).
Answer: (a) Dam's length - 825.8 metres
The Ramganga dam at Kalagarh (Pauri Garhwal) has a 198 MW power station and irrigates about 6 lakh hectares; the dam length figure is taken as the mismatched pair (it is generally given as about 630 m). Verify against the key.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Consider the following statements with reference to cultivated area of some countries of the world:
1. In comparison to USA, China and Japan, India has highest geographical area under cultivation.
2. India's location in tropical monsoon region helps diversified cropping all through the year.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2
India has the largest net sown (arable) area among India, the USA, China and Japan (about 140 million ha net sown, roughly 156 million ha arable), and its tropical monsoon location allows crops in all seasons. Both statements are taken as correct.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Place)
A. Devprayag
B. Rudraprayag
C. Karnaprayag
D. Tehri
List-II (Confluencing Rivers)
1. Alaknanda and Pindar
2. Alaknanda and Bhagirathi
3. Bhagirathi and Bhilangna
4. Alaknanda and Mandakini
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (d) 2 4 1 3
Devprayag – Alaknanda and Bhagirathi; Rudraprayag – Alaknanda and Mandakini; Karnaprayag – Alaknanda and Pindar; Tehri – Bhagirathi and Bhilangana. Code 2 4 1 3.
Consider the following statements with respect to the climate of Western Europe:
1. Western Europe receives rainfall in all months.
2. Western Europe is located in the belt of Westerlies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2
Western Europe has a marine west-coast climate: it lies in the westerly wind belt, which brings rain from the Atlantic in every month. Both statements are correct.
Consider the following mountains and arrange them in correct order from West to East by their location:
1. Karakoram
2. Pontic
3. Hindu Kush
4. Zagros
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) 2, 4, 3, 1
From west to east: Pontic Mountains (northern Turkey), Zagros (Iran), Hindu Kush (Afghanistan–Pakistan) and Karakoram. Order: 2, 4, 3, 1.
Answer: (d) Mekong river - South-West
The Mekong flows generally south and south-east from Tibet to the South China Sea, not south-west. The Amur (north-east into the Sea of Okhotsk), Syr Darya (north-west to the Aral Sea) and Angara (north from Baikal) are correct.
Answer: (b) Kuwait - Kashagan
Kashagan is a giant oilfield in the Kazakh sector of the Caspian Sea, not in Kuwait (Kuwait's main field is Burgan). Haft Kel (Iran), Dhahran (Saudi Arabia) and Zubair (Iraq) are correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Mediterranean climate:
1. It receives rainfall in winter season.
2. Due to winter solstice, air pressure belts shift to the South.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2
Mediterranean regions get rain in winter. Around the winter solstice the pressure belts shift south, bringing these northern-hemisphere regions under the rain-bearing westerlies. Both statements are correct.
With reference to the Anti-Maoist operation that took place in April 2024, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It took place in Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra.
2. The operation was launched by BSF and District Reserve Guards.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Only 2
The major anti-Maoist encounter of 16 April 2024 (29 Maoists killed) was in Kanker district, Chhattisgarh, not Gadchiroli, and was carried out by the BSF and District Reserve Guard. Only statement 2 is correct.
With reference to "PraVaHa" software developed by ISRO, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a path-breaking feat by Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre.
2. Initial aerodynamic design of space vehicles requires evaluation of large number of configurations.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2
PraVaHa (Parallel RANS solver for aerospace vehicle aero-thermo-dynamics analysis) is computational fluid dynamics software developed by ISRO's Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, since early aerodynamic design must evaluate a very large number of configurations. Both statements are correct.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In April 2024, India delivered the BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile to Philippines.
Reason (R): The Missile has a range of 490 kilometres.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
India delivered the first BrahMos missile batteries to the Philippines in April 2024 (under a $375 million deal). The export version has a range of about 290 km, not 490 km, so (R) is false.
With reference to the "Kohima Peace Memorial and Eco-Park" which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Its inauguration programme was held on 8th March, 2024 at Kohima.
2. It will be developed by South Korea.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (c) Only 1
The Kohima Peace Memorial and Eco-Park was inaugurated on 8 March 2024; it was developed with Japanese assistance, not South Korean. Only statement 1 is correct.
With reference to "Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme" (MATES), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. This is a bilateral framework between India and Australia.
2. In this scheme Indian graduates (aged 18-30) with knowledge and skills in specific fields of study will be offered to live and work in Australia for up to two years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2
MATES is an India–Australia scheme (under their 2023 migration and mobility partnership) that lets Indian graduates aged 18–30 in specified fields live and work in Australia for up to two years. Both statements are correct.
With reference to the International Conference on Nuclear Security (ICONS-2024), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. This conference was held on 25th May, 2024.
2. India has recently reconstituted an inter-ministerial Counter Nuclear Smuggling Team (CNST) to strengthen the nuclear security.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Only 2
ICONS 2024 was held in Vienna on 20–24 May 2024, not on 25 May. India reconstituted its inter-ministerial Counter Nuclear Smuggling Team, as it reported at the conference. Only statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the "Piral Lao Paise Pao" campaign, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. This is related to reduce forest fires and to provide a source of income to villagers.
2. The Chief Minister of Uttarakhand launched this campaign.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2
Uttarakhand CM Pushkar Singh Dhami launched 'Pirul Lao, Paise Pao' in 2024: villagers collect fallen pine needles (pirul), which fuel forest fires, and are paid for them. Both statements are correct.
With reference to "Nepal India International Sanskrit Conclave-2024", which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was held at New Delhi.
2. This three-day conclave was organised by the Niti Anusandhan Pratisthan.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Only 2
The Nepal–Bharat International Sanskrit Conclave 2024 was a three-day event held in Kathmandu, not New Delhi, organised by the Niti Anusandhan Pratishthan (Nepal) with the Indian Embassy. Only statement 2 is taken as correct; verify.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
With reference to "Lunar Polar Exploration Mission" (LUPEX), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. This is an India - Japan partnership for their joint moon mission which shall be launched in the future.
2. JAXA is responsible for developing the lander for the mission, while ISRO is handling the rover and launch vehicle.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (c) Only 1
LUPEX is a planned joint ISRO–JAXA lunar polar mission (statement 1 correct). JAXA provides the rover and the H3 launch vehicle while ISRO builds the lander, the reverse of statement 2.
With reference to "Guidelines for Elimination of Corporal Punishment" (GECP), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Tamil Nadu School Education Department issued these guidelines on 26th April, 2024.
2. These guidelines are focussed on safeguarding the physical and mental well-being of students.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2
Tamil Nadu's School Education Department issued Guidelines for Elimination of Corporal Punishment in April 2024 to protect students' physical and mental well-being. Both statements are correct.
With reference to "FLY91" which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a newly launched airline in India.
2. Its inaugural flight took off from Manohar International Airport on 18th March, 2024.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2
FLY91 is a new Goa-based regional airline; its first flight took off from Manohar International Airport (Mopa) on 18 March 2024. Both statements are correct.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Yojana Name)
A. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Gramin
B. Jal Jeevan Mission
C. Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin
D. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
List-II (Date of launch)
1. May, 2016
2. October, 2014
3. August, 2019
4. November, 2016
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (b) 4 3 2 1
PMAY-Gramin – November 2016; Jal Jeevan Mission – August 2019; Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) – October 2014; PM Ujjwala Yojana – May 2016. Code 4 3 2 1.
Which indicators are used in Human Development Index (HDI)?
1. Income level
2. Education
3. Condition of environment
4. Life expectancy
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (c) Only 1, 2 and 4
The HDI combines three dimensions: a long and healthy life (life expectancy), knowledge (education) and a decent standard of living (GNI per capita). Environment is not an HDI indicator.
Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Swachh Bharat Mission
2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
3. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana
4. Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme
Codes:
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3, 4
Swachh Bharat Mission – October 2014; PM Kaushal Vikas Yojana – July 2015; PM Garib Kalyan Yojana – December 2016; PM Mahila Shakti Kendra – November 2017. Order: 1, 2, 3, 4.
Answer: (d) Geometric, Arithmetic
Malthus argued that population grows in a geometric progression (1, 2, 4, 8…) while food supply grows in an arithmetic progression (1, 2, 3, 4…).
According to the Economic Survey, 2022-23, what fiscal policy response did the Government of India undertake in response to the aggravated global supply disruptions?
1. Decreasing food and fertiliser subsidies
2. Increasing taxes on fuel and imported products
3. Reducing taxes on fuel and certain imported products
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Only 3
The Economic Survey 2022-23 notes that the government responded to global supply disruptions by cutting excise duty on petrol and diesel and customs duties on certain imports, while raising food and fertiliser subsidies. Only statement 3 is correct.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Social Security Programme)
A. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana
B. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana
C. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
D. Atal Pension Yojana
List-II (Beneficiary's Contribution)
1. Beneficiary's choice
2. ₹55-200 per month
3. ₹436 per year
4. ₹20 per year
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (a) 2 3 4 1
PM Shram Yogi Maan-dhan – ₹55–200 a month (by age); PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima – ₹436 a year; PM Suraksha Bima – ₹20 a year; Atal Pension Yojana – depends on the pension the subscriber chooses. Code 2 3 4 1.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Development is being defined as improving living standards and welfare.
Reason (R): Growth in per capita income is not a sufficient measure of development.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Development is now defined as improving living standards and welfare (health, education, freedom), because per-capita income growth alone does not capture these. (R) explains (A).
Which measures are essential to achieve Goal 4 of the Sustainable Development Targets, 2030?
1. Making education free and compulsory
2. Improving basic school infrastructure and embracing digital transformation
3. Expansion of agricultural programmes
4. Increasing investment in technology
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) 1 and 2
SDG 4 (quality education) targets free, equitable primary and secondary education and better school facilities, including digital learning. Expanding agricultural programmes is not part of it.
Answer: (b) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property
The freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property (Article 19(1)(f)) was deleted by the 44th Amendment (1978); property is now a legal right under Article 300A.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to the Constitution of India, the same person cannot function as the Governor of two or more States at the same time.
Reason (R): Article 153 of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a Governor for each State.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Article 153 says there shall be a Governor for each state (R true), but the 7th Amendment (1956) added that the same person may be Governor of two or more states, so (A) is false.
Answer: (d) Altering the name of a State - Power of a State Legislature
Under Article 3, Parliament (not the state legislature) alters the name of a state, after referring the bill to the state legislature for its views. The other pairs are correct.
Match List-I and List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Consolidated Fund of India
B. Finance Commission
C. Financial Emergency
D. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
List-II
1. Article 266
2. Article 360
3. Article 280
4. Article 148
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (c) 1 3 2 4
Consolidated Fund of India – Article 266; Finance Commission – 280; Financial Emergency – 360; CAG – 148. Code 1 3 2 4.
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Abolition of untouchability
2. Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labour
3. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
4. Protection of interests of minorities
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) 2 and 3
The Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24) prohibits trafficking and forced labour and employment of children in factories and mines. Untouchability (Article 17) is under the Right to Equality, and minorities' interests (Articles 29–30) under cultural and educational rights.
Answer: (d) Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner
Mouse, keyboard and scanner are all input devices. Printers, projectors and monitors are output devices.
Answer: (c) ROM
ROM (read-only memory) is non-volatile and keeps its contents without power; RAM is volatile.
Answer: (c) °F = °C + 32
The correct relation is °F = (9/5)°C + 32 (and K = °C + 273.15), which none of the printed options gives. (c) is the only one with the right form apart from the 9/5 factor; the official key may have dropped this question.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Answer: (b) Nucleus of a cell does not play a role in cellular reproduction.
The nucleus directs cell division and reproduction (it divides by mitosis or meiosis), so (b) is not true. Chromosomes are DNA plus protein and carry hereditary information, and a gene is a functional segment of DNA.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): CO₂, SO₂, and NO₂ gases get dissolved in rain water and produce acid rain.
Reason (R): Atmospheric air is polluted due to high concentration of gases like carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen (with CO₂) dissolve in rainwater to form acids, giving acid rain (A true). Their high concentration in polluted air is what supplies them (R true), so (R) is taken as the explanation; verify.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
With reference to the 7th India Indonesia Joint Defence Cooperation Committee meeting, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In this meeting Indonesia agreed to enhance collaboration in the areas of defence, industry, maritime security and multilateral cooperation.
2. This meeting was held at Jakarta on May 5, 2024.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (c) Only 1
At the 7th India–Indonesia Joint Defence Cooperation Committee meeting (May 2024) the two sides agreed to deepen cooperation in defence industry, maritime security and multilateral forums. The meeting is reported to have been held in New Delhi, not Jakarta, so only statement 1 is taken as correct; verify.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
With reference to "FWD 200B", which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. This is India's first indigenous bomber "UAV" aircraft.
2. Its payload capacity is 100 kgs.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2
FWD-200B, unveiled in 2024 by Bengaluru's Flying Wedge Defence and Aerospace, is described as India's first indigenous bomber UAV, with a payload of about 100 kg. Both statements are correct.
With reference to "India Australia Economic Co-operation and Trade Agreement (Ind - Aus ECTA)" which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. This is a first-of-its-kind initiative of FTAs.
2. The meeting was attended by the Commerce Secretary of India, Shri Sunil Barthwal.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2
At the first Joint Committee meeting under Ind-Aus ECTA (2024), attended by Commerce Secretary Sunil Barthwal, it was described as a first-of-its-kind initiative in implementing FTAs. Both statements are taken as correct; verify.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Joint Exercise)
A. India-Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise, "DUSTLIK"
B. India-France Joint Military Exercise, "SHAKTI"
C. Harbour phase of Indo-US Joint Exercise, Tiger Triumph, 2024
D. MILAN, 2024
List-II (Dates)
1. February 19-27, 2024
2. May 13-26, 2024
3. April 15-28, 2024
4. March 18-25, 2024
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (b) 3 2 4 1
DUSTLIK (India–Uzbekistan) – 15–28 April 2024; SHAKTI (India–France) – 13–26 May 2024; Tiger Triumph harbour phase – 18–25 March 2024; MILAN – 19–27 February 2024. Code 3 2 4 1.
With reference to "Shaksgam Valley", which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. This valley is a strategic, key region, that is part of Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).
2. India has lodged protest against the infrastructural development being carried out by China in this valley.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2
The Shaksgam Valley, part of the former state of Jammu and Kashmir, was illegally ceded by Pakistan to China in 1963; news reports described it as part of PoK. In 2024 India protested against China's road building there. Both statements are taken as correct; verify.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Integrated Rural Development Programme
2. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
3. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
4. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana
Codes:
Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
IRDP – 1978-80; Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana – 1999; NREGA – 2005; PM Jan-Dhan Yojana – 2014. Order: 1, 2, 3, 4.
With reference to Economic Growth, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Indian Economy is an Underdeveloped Economy.
2. Indian Economy is a Mixed Economy.
3. J.M. Keynes is the Father of Economics.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
India is described as an underdeveloped (developing) and mixed economy. Adam Smith, not J.M. Keynes, is called the father of economics; Keynes is the father of macroeconomics.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The value of national currency determined by demand and supply of foreign currency is called flexible exchange rate.
Reason (R): Demand and supply of the foreign currency is being determined by the Central Bank.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
A flexible (floating) exchange rate is set by market demand and supply of foreign currency (A true). That demand and supply come from trade and capital flows, not from the central bank (which can only intervene), so (R) is false.
With reference to India, consider the following events:
1. Nationalisation of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches
Which of the above events can be considered as steps taken to achieve "financial inclusion in India"?
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3
Bank nationalisation (1969, 1980), the creation of Regional Rural Banks (1975) and the Lead Bank Scheme's village adoption by branches all aimed to extend banking to rural and poor people, i.e. financial inclusion.
With reference to "National Food Security Act", which of the following statements are correct?
1. It will cover up to 75% rural and 50% urban population.
2. It has special focus on nutritional support to women and children.
3. It was enforced on July 5, 2010.
Codes:
Answer: (d) 1 and 2 are correct.
The National Food Security Act, 2013 covers up to 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population and gives special nutritional support to pregnant women, lactating mothers and children. It came into force in 2013 (ordinance of 5 July 2013), not 2010.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): There is a positive relationship between Human Development Index (HDI) and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ranking of Indian States.
Reason (R): The underlying dimensions of SDG targets are closely related to education and health aspects.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
States that rank high on the HDI generally rank high on NITI Aayog's SDG Index, because many SDG targets concern health and education, which are also HDI dimensions. (R) explains (A).
List-I contains the names of countries, whereas List-II shows the Rank as remittances received in the year 2022. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Country)
A. Mexico
B. China
C. India
D. Philippines
List-II (Rank)
1. First
2. Second
3. Third
4. Fourth
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (b) 2 3 1 4
World Bank data for 2022: India first (about $111 billion), Mexico second (about $61 billion), China third (about $51 billion), Philippines fourth (about $38 billion). Code 2 3 1 4.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (State)
A. Maharashtra
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Karnataka
List-II (Rank according to expenditure on infrastructure 2019-23)
1. First
2. Second
3. Third
4. Fourth
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (b) 2 1 3 4
Uttar Pradesh is reported to have the highest infrastructure (capital) expenditure over 2019–23, followed by Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Code 2 1 3 4; verify against the key.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with the declaration of an emergency.
Reason (R): An emergency may take place at any time.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Article 352 provides for a national emergency (war, external aggression or armed rebellion). An emergency may arise at any time, but that does not explain what Article 352 contains, so (R) is not the explanation.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding ICT based e-Governance?
1. e-Governance reduces the transparency of Government.
2. e-Governance reduces the cost of Government.
3. e-Governance increases citizens input into Government.
4. e-Governance increases bureaucratic red tapism.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (b) 2 and 3
e-Governance reduces the cost of government and increases citizens' input, while it increases transparency and reduces red tape. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
The UPSC derives its functions from which of the following sources?
1. The Constitution
2. Parliamentary Laws
3. Executive Rules and Orders
4. Conventions
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) 1 and 2
The UPSC's functions come from the Constitution (Article 320) and from laws made by Parliament, which may give it extra functions (Article 321). Executive rules and conventions are not taken as sources; verify.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
Constitutional Body - Constitutional Article
Answer: (d) National Commission for Backward Classes - 340
Article 340 provides for a commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes, which is the basis of the backward classes commissions (the NCBC itself is under Article 338B). The others are wrong: Election Commission is 324, NCSC 338 and Finance Commission 280.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Identify the correct chronological sequence of the following:
1. Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
2. Sajjan Singh vs. State of Rajasthan
3. Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
4. Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3, 4
Shankari Prasad (1951), Sajjan Singh (1965), Golaknath (1967) and Kesavananda Bharati (1973). Order: 1, 2, 3, 4.
Match the Amendments with their year of implementation:
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 52nd Amendment
C. 86th Amendment
D. 96th Amendment
1. 1985
2. 2011
3. 1976
4. 2002
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A B C D
Answer: (d) 3 1 4 2
42nd Amendment – 1976; 52nd (anti-defection) – 1985; 86th (right to education) – 2002; 96th (Odia for Oriya) – 2011. Code 3 1 4 2.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Cooperative Federalism
B. Bargaining Federalism
C. Quasi Federalism
D. Federalism with Centralising Tendency
List-II
1. K.C. Wheare
2. Ivor Jennings
3. Morris-Jones
4. Granville Austin
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (c) 4 3 1 2
Cooperative federalism – Granville Austin; bargaining federalism – Morris-Jones; quasi-federal – K.C. Wheare; federation with a strong centralising tendency – Ivor Jennings. Code 4 3 1 2.
Answer: (d) Nyaya Panchayat
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended three tiers: gram panchayat (village), panchayat samiti (block) and zila parishad (district). Nyaya panchayats were not one of the tiers.
According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 the Lokpal would be appointed by the President after obtaining the recommendations of a Selection Committee, with the Prime Minister as chairperson and consisting, among others, of the following:
1. Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by him
2. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 4
The Lokpal selection committee has the Prime Minister (chair), the Speaker, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India or a judge nominated by him, and an eminent jurist. The Rajya Sabha Chairman is not a member.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Congress Socialist Party:
1. The Congress Socialist Party was formed in January 1934.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru formally joined this party due to his sympathy for socialism.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (b) Neither 1 nor 2
The Congress Socialist Party was formed in 1934 (Patna meeting in May; first conference at Bombay in October), not January, and Nehru, though sympathetic to socialism, never formally joined it. Both statements are wrong.
Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order:
1. Murder of Abul Fazl
2. Death of Sheikh Mubarak
3. Death of Faizi
4. Death of Daniyal
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (c) 2, 3, 1, 4
Sheikh Mubarak died in 1593, Faizi in 1595, Abul Fazl was murdered in 1602 and Prince Daniyal died in 1605. Order: 2, 3, 1, 4.
Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order:
1. Linlithgow August Offer
2. Cripps Mission arrival in India
3. Ramgarh Congress Session
4. Resignation letters of Congress Ministers
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
Congress ministries resigned – October–November 1939; Ramgarh session – March 1940; August Offer – August 1940; Cripps Mission arrived – March 1942. Order: 4, 3, 1, 2.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Book)
A. Hindu Polity
B. The Wonder That Was India
C. An Introduction to the Study of Indian History
D. The Early History of India
List-II (Writer)
1. D.D. Kosambi
2. A.L. Basham
3. K.P. Jayaswal
4. Vincent Arthur Smith
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (c) 3 2 1 4
Hindu Polity – K.P. Jayaswal; The Wonder That Was India – A.L. Basham; An Introduction to the Study of Indian History – D.D. Kosambi; The Early History of India – Vincent A. Smith. Code 3 2 1 4.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Most of the early nationalists considered British rule as an act of providence destined to bring modernisation.
Reason (R): They complained only against "Un-British rule" in India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Most early nationalists (moderates) saw British rule as providential and modernising, and they complained only of 'un-British rule' (Dadabhai Naoroji). Both are true, but the complaint against un-British rule follows from (A) rather than explaining it.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Answer: (b) He was the Principal of Lahore College, Lahore.
W.A.J. Archbold was Principal of MAO College, Aligarh (1905–09), and also headed colleges at Dacca and Allahabad (Muir Central College). He is not known as Principal of a Lahore college, so (b) is taken as the incorrect statement; verify.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order starting from the earliest :
1. Vellore Mutiny
2. Death of Nana Fadnavis
3. Recall of Wellesley
4. Anglo-Nepalese War
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) 2, 3, 1, 4
Nana Fadnavis died in 1800, Wellesley was recalled in 1805, the Vellore Mutiny was in 1806 and the Anglo-Nepalese War in 1814–16. Order: 2, 3, 1, 4.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Revolt)
A. Paika Revolt
B. Bareilly Revolt
C. Malabar Revolt
D. Sylhet Revolt
List-II (Leader)
1. Edachena Kungan
2. Radharam
3. Mufti Muhammad Aiwaz
4. Jagabandhu Bidyadhar Mahapatra
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (a) 4 3 1 2
Paika revolt (1817, Odisha) – Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar; Bareilly revolt (1816) – Mufti Muhammad Aiwaz; Malabar revolt – Edachena Kunkan (with Pazhassi Raja); Sylhet revolt – Radharam. Code 4 3 1 2.
Consider the following days and arrange them in chronological order:
1. World Health Day
2. National Maritime Day
3. World Athletics Day
4. World Red Cross Day
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
National Maritime Day – 5 April; World Health Day – 7 April; World Athletics Day – 7 May; World Red Cross Day – 8 May. Order: 2, 1, 3, 4.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Award)
A. Aryabhatta Award, 2024
B. World Literary Prize, 2024
C. Lata Deenanath Mangeshkar Award, 2024
D. Goldman Environmental Prize, 2024
List-II (Recipient)
1. Amitabh Bachchan
2. Mamta G. Sagar
3. Dr. Subba Rao Pavuluri
4. Alok Shukla
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (a) 3 2 1 4
Aryabhata Award 2024 – Dr. Subba Rao Pavuluri; World Literary Prize 2024 – Mamta G. Sagar; Lata Deenanath Mangeshkar Award 2024 – Amitabh Bachchan; Goldman Environmental Prize 2024 – Alok Shukla (Hasdeo forests). Code 3 2 1 4.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Vitamin)
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
List-II (Disease)
1. Beriberi
2. Blindness
3. Rickets
4. Scurvy
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (b) 2 1 4 3
Vitamin A deficiency – night blindness; vitamin B1 – beriberi; vitamin C – scurvy; vitamin D – rickets. Code 2 1 4 3.
Consider the following statements with reference to Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
1. In the Constitution, there is a provision for the post of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities for every State.
2. A new Article 350 B was added for this by the 9th Constitution Amendment Act.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (b) Neither 1 nor 2
Article 350B provides for one Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, appointed by the President, not one for every state, and it was added by the 7th Amendment (1956), not the 9th. Both statements are wrong.
The Concurrent list of the Indian Constitution includes:
1. Trade and Commerce
2. Adulteration of Goods
3. Succession
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (d) 2 and 3
Adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods (entry 18) and succession (entry 5) are in the Concurrent List. Trade and commerce within a state is in the State List and inter-state trade in the Union List.
Fathima Beevi died recently. Consider the following statements regarding her:
1. She was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India.
2. She served as the Governor of Kerala from 1997-2001.
3. She was the first Muslim woman to enter into higher judiciary.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (b) 1 and 3
Justice M. Fathima Beevi (died November 2023) was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court (1989) and the first Muslim woman in the higher judiciary. She was Governor of Tamil Nadu (1997–2001), not Kerala.
With reference to the "National Intellectual Property Rights Policy" consider the following statements:
1. It reiterates India's commitment to Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating Intellectual Property Rights in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2
The National IPR Policy (2016) reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and TRIPS, and made DIPP (now DPIIT) the nodal department for IPRs. Both statements are correct.
Answer: (d) 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts
The 73rd (panchayats) and 74th (municipalities) Amendment Acts, 1992 gave constitutional status to local government.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Author)
A. Lallanji Gopal
B. Habib and Nizami
C. K.S. Lal
D. Dasharatha Sharma
List-II (Book)
1. A Comprehensive History of India : The Delhi Sultanat
2. The Economic Life of Northern India
3. Early Chauhan Dynasties
4. History of the Khaljis
Codes:
A B C D
Answer: (a) 2 1 4 3
Lallanji Gopal – The Economic Life of Northern India; Habib and Nizami – A Comprehensive History of India: The Delhi Sultanat; K.S. Lal – History of the Khaljis; Dasharatha Sharma – Early Chauhan Dynasties. Code 2 1 4 3.
Consider the following statements:
1. Kunwar Singh, Landlord of Jagdishpur in Bihar, led the rebellion against the British.
2. Lord Dalhousie recognised the adopted son of Rani Lakshmi Bai as the heir apparent.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: (c) Only 1
Kunwar Singh of Jagdishpur led the 1857 revolt in Bihar. Dalhousie refused to recognise Rani Lakshmibai's adopted son and annexed Jhansi under the Doctrine of Lapse, so statement 2 is wrong.
Consider the following foreign travellers and arrange them in ascending chronological order:
1. I-Tsing
2. Al-Biruni
3. Huentsang (Hiuen Tsang)
4. Fahyan (Fa-Hien)
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
Fa-Hien (about 399–414 CE), Hiuen Tsang (630–645), I-Tsing (671–695) and Al-Biruni (11th century). Order: 4, 3, 1, 2.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Balban made his government firm and centralised all authority in his hands.
Reason (R): He wanted to protect the north-west frontier against Mongol invasions.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Balban built a strong, centralised monarchy (theory of kingship, the 'blood and iron' policy, a reorganised army) largely to defend the north-west frontier against the Mongols. (R) explains (A).
Timed mock tests with negative marking, in English and हिन्दी, with an explanation for every answer and subject-wise analysis of your result.
