All 100 questions from UPSC Civil Services (IAS) Prelims 2017, GS Paper I. Each question has the correct answer and an explanation of why it is right and the other options are not. Try each one first, then open “Show answer and explanation”.
Answers follow UPSC's official answer key (Series A). Where UPSC dropped a question, it is marked as dropped.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: a private member's bill is introduced by any MP who is not a minister, elected or nominated.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Parliament has passed 14 private members' bills; the last one became law in 1970.
With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: Rigvedic Aryans used coats of mail (varman) and helmets, for which Harappan sites give no evidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Harappans knew gold, silver, copper and bronze but not iron.
Statement 3 is correct: the horse was central to Rigvedic life, while firm evidence of the horse at Harappan sites is lacking.
'Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to
- (a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.
- (b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
- (c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
- (d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.
Recognition of Prior Learning (under PMKVY) certifies skills people have gained informally or traditionally; it was widely used for construction workers, so the official key takes (a).
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
- (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
- (b) Nallamala Forest
- (c) Nagarhole National Park
- (d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) lies where the Western and Eastern Ghats meet and forms a wildlife corridor linking the two ranges.
One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
- (a) Privileges
- (b) Restraints
- (c) Competition
- (d) Ideology
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Privileges
Equality in society means no person or group enjoys special privileges; everyone has the same rights and opportunities.
Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: TRAFFIC is a joint programme of WWF and IUCN, not a bureau of UNEP.
Statement 2 is correct: its mission is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals does not threaten nature conservation.
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
- (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
- (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
- (c) Right to work, education and public assistance
- (d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
The 42nd Amendment (1976) added Article 43A, participation of workers in the management of industries, along with Articles 39A and 48A.
Equal pay, living wage and right to work were in the original Constitution.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
- (b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
- (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
- (d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
Rights are claims of individuals against the State, which the State recognises and protects.
Which of the following gives 'Global Gender Gap Index' ranking to the countries of the world?
- (a) World Economic Forum
- (b) UN Human Rights Council
- (c) UN Women
- (d) World Health Organization
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) World Economic Forum
The Global Gender Gap Index is published by the World Economic Forum in its annual Global Gender Gap Report.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 2 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Smart India Hackathon 2017 was an initiative in which students built digital solutions to problems posed by ministries.
It was not a smart cities scheme or a plan to make all transactions digital.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 2 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the MPC fixes the policy (repo) rate.
Statement 2 is incorrect: it has six members (three from the RBI including the Governor, three appointed by the Government for four years).
Statement 3 is incorrect: it is chaired by the RBI Governor.
With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:
1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 1 and 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Manipuri Sankirtana is a song-and-dance ritual narrating the life of Krishna; besides cymbals it uses the pung (drum).
So statements 1 and 3 are correct and 2 is wrong.
Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?
1. Lord Cornwallis
2. Alexander Read
3. Thomas Munro
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
The Ryotwari system was introduced by Alexander Read in Baramahal (1792) and extended by Thomas Munro in Madras.
Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement in Bengal.
In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?
1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: bioremediation speeds up natural biodegradation, and genetically engineered microbes can be designed for it.
Statement 2 is incorrect: heavy metals like cadmium and lead cannot be broken down and are not readily or completely removed by microbes.
The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for
- (a) the participation of workers in the management of industries.
- (b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.
- (c) an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.
- (d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.
The Trade Disputes Act, 1929 set up courts of inquiry and boards of conciliation (tribunals) and banned strikes in public utility services without notice and strikes meant to coerce the government.
Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
- (a) Federalism
- (b) Democratic decentralisation
- (c) Administrative delegation
- (d) Direct democracy
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Democratic decentralisation
Local self-government transfers power to elected local bodies (panchayats, municipalities), so it is an exercise in democratic decentralisation.
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
1. legislative function.
2. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Directive Principles are not enforceable by courts (Article 37); they are guidelines for law-making and governance, not limitations on legislative or executive functions.
The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' seen in the news refers to
- (a) ASEAN
- (b) BRICS
- (c) EU
- (d) G20
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) EU
The Digital Single Market Strategy (2015) is a European Union plan to remove barriers to online trade and services across member states.
At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at
- (a) Bhavnagar
- (b) Bheemunipatnam
- (c) Chandipur
- (d) Nagapattinam
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Chandipur
At Chandipur beach (Odisha) the sea recedes up to about 5 km at low tide twice a day, letting people walk on the sea bed.
With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)', consider the following statements:
1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 2 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: under the 2016 amendment a transaction where the owner is unaware of or denies knowledge of it is benami.
Statement 2 is correct: benami property is liable to confiscation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: the Act provides four authorities and an Appellate Tribunal.
Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Butterflies are pollinators and prey for wasps, spiders and birds, so a crash in their numbers would hurt pollination and the predators that feed on them.
Butterflies do not control fungal infections of crops.
It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?
1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: algae can be grown on land in open ponds or photobioreactors.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: algal biofuel plants need high technical expertise, and economic scale requires large facilities that raise ecological and social concerns.
Which of the following are the objectives of 'National Nutrition Mission'?
1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
- (d) 3 and 4 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
The National Nutrition Mission (Poshan Abhiyaan) aims to raise awareness on malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers and to cut anaemia among children, adolescent girls and women.
Promoting millets or eggs was not among its stated objectives.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Factories Act, 1881 regulated child labour and working hours; it did not fix wages or allow trade unions.
Statement 2 is correct: N. M. Lokhande founded the Bombay Mill Hands Association (1890) and pioneered India's labour movement.
In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are recognised geological storage sites for captured carbon dioxide: unmineable coal seams, depleted oil and gas reservoirs, and deep saline aquifers.
The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to
- (a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
- (b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
- (c) Impose censorship on national press.
- (d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.
The Butler Committee (1927) examined and recommended on the relationship between the Paramount Power (Government of India) and the Indian princely States.
The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' is sometimes seen in the news with reference to
- (a) Developing solar power production in our country
- (b) Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our country
- (c) Exporting our food products to other countries
- (d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Developing solar power production in our country
Domestic Content Requirement refers to rules in India's National Solar Mission requiring solar cells and modules to be made in India; the US challenged it at the WTO.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Nuclear Security Summits (2010–2016) were US-initiated, not held under the UN.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the International Panel on Fissile Materials is an independent group of experts, not an IAEA organ.
Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?
- (a) Resident Indian citizens only
- (b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
- (c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
- (d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
State Government employees who join after their State notifies NPS are covered.
NPS is also open to NRIs, the age limit then was 18–60 (later 65 and 70), and the Armed Forces are excluded.
With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Teesta rises from glaciers in North Sikkim (Tso Lhamo/Zemu), not from the source of the Brahmaputra.
Statement 2 is correct: the Rangeet rises in Sikkim and joins the Teesta.
Statement 3 is incorrect: the Teesta joins the Brahmaputra (Jamuna) in Bangladesh.
Consider the following statements:
1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Zika is spread mainly by the Aedes aegypti mosquito, which also spreads dengue, and it can be transmitted sexually.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the BIS mark is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: AGMARK is issued by India's Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, not the FAO.
What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the 'National Agriculture Market' scheme?
1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: e-NAM is a pan-India electronic trading portal linking APMC mandis, giving farmers a national market and quality-based prices.
With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements:
1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the National IPR Policy (2016) reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and TRIPS, and makes DIPP (now DPIIT) the nodal agency for IPRs.
According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Gharial, Indian wild ass and wild buffalo are all in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, so none can be hunted except as the Act allows.
Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: no legislative process is provided in the Constitution to enforce Fundamental Duties.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties are moral obligations, not correlative to legal duties.
Consider the following pairs:
1. Radhakanta Deb - First President of the British Indian Association
2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty - Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
3. Surendranath Banerjee - Founder of the Indian Association
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Radhakanta Deb was the first president of the British Indian Association (1851) and Surendranath Banerjee founded the Indian Association (1876).
Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty founded the Madras Native Association; the Madras Mahajana Sabha (1884) was founded by M. Viraraghavachariar and others.
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
- (a) Liberty of thought
- (b) Economic liberty
- (c) Liberty of expression
- (d) Liberty of belief
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Economic liberty
The Preamble promises liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
Economic liberty is not mentioned; the Preamble speaks of economic justice.
With reference to 'Quality Council of India (QCI)', consider the following statements:
1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: QCI was set up in 1997 jointly by the Government of India and industry bodies (ASSOCHAM, CII, FICCI), and its Chairman is appointed by the Prime Minister on the industry's recommendation to the Government.
What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?
1. To supply credit to small business units
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Small Finance Banks were created for financial inclusion: to supply credit to small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and the unorganised sector.
Encouraging young entrepreneurs in rural areas is not their stated purpose.
With reference to 'Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)', consider the following statements:
1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme 'Emerging Urban Forms Policy Responses and Governance Structure'.
2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the first APMCHUD was held in New Delhi in 2006 on that theme.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the conference is biennial and hosted by different member countries (e.g. Iran, Indonesia, Jordan), not annually by India.
Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
- (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
- (b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
- (c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
- (d) a band of dedicated party workers.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
Democracy's chief merit is that it draws ordinary men and women into public life, calling on their intelligence and character.
Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the 'Unified Payments Interface (UPI)'?
- (a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
- (b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.
- (c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.
- (d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
UPI lets users pay directly from bank account to bank account through a mobile app, so a separate mobile wallet is no longer needed for online payments.
The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String Theory' and 'Standard Model' sometimes seen in the news are in the context of
- (a) Observation and understanding of Universe
- (b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
- (c) Placing satellites in the orbit of Earth
- (d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Observation and understanding of Universe
Event horizon, singularity (black holes), string theory and the Standard Model (particle physics) are concepts used to observe and understand the universe.
With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of 'genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?
1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
3. It can be used to decipher host-pathogen relationships in crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: genome sequencing identifies genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance, speeds up breeding of new varieties, and reveals host-pathogen interactions in crops.
The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
- (a) the executive and legislature work independently.
- (b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
- (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
- (d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
In a parliamentary system the executive is drawn from and remains responsible to the legislature, which can remove it through a no-confidence vote.
In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
- (a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
- (b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
- (c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
- (d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
Rights and duties are correlative: every right implies a duty on others and on the right-holder to respect others' rights.
The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
- (a) The Preamble
- (b) The Fundamental Rights
- (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
- (d) The Fundamental Duties
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) The Preamble
The Preamble is the key to the mind of the makers of the Constitution; it states the ideals and objectives they wanted to achieve.
If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and destination?
- (a) 6
- (b) 7
- (c) 8
- (d) 9
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 7
The shortest road route passes through 7 States: Nagaland, Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are tools of parliamentary control over the executive: adjournment motions raise urgent matters, Question Hour holds ministers to account, and supplementary questions probe their answers.
Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?
- (a) Kakinada
- (b) Motupalli
- (c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
- (d) Nelluru
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Motupalli
Motupalli (Andhra Pradesh) was the chief seaport of the Kakatiyas; Marco Polo visited it and Ganapatideva's Motupalli inscription granted protection to traders.
With reference to 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: the Global Climate Change Alliance (2007) is a European Union initiative that gives technical and financial help to vulnerable developing countries to integrate climate change into policies and budgets.
Statement 3 is incorrect: it is run by the EU, not by WRI and WBCSD.
With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Sautrantika and Sammitiya were Buddhist schools, not Jain sects.
Statement 2 is correct: the Sarvastivadins held that the elements (dharmas) of phenomena exist in past, present and future in a latent form.
Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?
1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only
Lebanon and Syria border the Mediterranean.
Jordan touches only the Red Sea (Gulf of Aqaba), and Iraq only the Persian Gulf.
With reference to 'National Investment and Infrastructure Fund', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of ₹ 4,00,000 crore at present.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: NIIF (2015) is a government-anchored investment fund under the Ministry of Finance, not an organ of NITI Aayog.
Statement 2 is incorrect: its planned corpus was ₹40,000 crore, not ₹4,00,000 crore.
Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
- (a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
- (b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
- (c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
- (d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
The Global Infrastructure Facility (2014) is a World Bank Group partnership that helps prepare and structure complex infrastructure PPPs to attract private and institutional investors.
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
- (a) anyone residing in India.
- (b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
- (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
- (d) any citizen of India.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a candidate for the Lok Sabha must be a citizen of India registered as an elector in any parliamentary constituency.
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Himalayas extend over many more States and UTs (J&K, Himachal, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, West Bengal, Arunachal and others).
Statement 2 is incorrect: the Western Ghats span six States (Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu).
Statement 3 is correct: Pulicat Lake lies in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
- (a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
- (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
- (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
- (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
BOD is the oxygen microbes need to break down organic matter in water; a high BOD means more organic pollution, so it is used to assess pollution in water bodies.
With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?
1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 1 and 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: the UN General Assembly mandates UN-Habitat to promote sustainable towns and cities with adequate shelter for all, and it contributes to UN goals on poverty, water and sanitation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: its partners also include NGOs, civil society, academia and the private sector.
With reference to 'National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)', which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: NSQF recognises learning through formal, non-formal and informal routes (e.g. Recognition of Prior Learning).
Statement 2 is correct: one aim of NSQF is mobility between vocational and general education.
In the context of Indian history, the principle of 'Dyarchy (diarchy)' refers to
- (a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.
- (b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.
- (c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
- (d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
Dyarchy under the Government of India Act, 1919 divided provincial subjects into 'transferred' subjects (under ministers responsible to the legislature) and 'reserved' subjects (under the Governor and his executive council).
Consider the following in respect of 'National Career Service':
1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: the National Career Service (2015) is run by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not DoPT.
Statement 2 is incorrect: it is an online platform for all job-seekers and employers, not only uneducated youth.
Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)', recently seen in the news?
- (a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
- (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
- (c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
- (d) It is an important provision in 'The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code' recently implemented by the Government.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
S4A (2016) was an RBI scheme to restructure the debt of large stressed companies with viable operations by splitting it into sustainable and unsustainable parts.
Consider the following statements:
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the CCAC (2012) was launched by UNEP with Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden and the USA, not by the G20.
Statement 2 is correct: it targets short-lived climate pollutants such as methane, black carbon and HFCs.
With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino's impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the IOD is the sea-surface temperature difference between the western and eastern parts of the tropical Indian Ocean, not the Pacific.
Statement 2 is correct: a positive IOD can offset El Niño's drying effect on the Indian monsoon.
If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
- (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
- (b) Chambal River
- (c) Pulicat Lake
- (d) Deepor Beel
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Chambal River
The National Chambal Sanctuary on the Chambal River holds the largest wild population of gharials.
Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the inaugural IONS was held in 2008 in New Delhi, chaired by the Indian Navy.
Statement 2 is correct: IONS is a voluntary forum to increase maritime cooperation among navies of Indian Ocean littoral states.
The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at
- (a) Ajanta
- (b) Badami
- (c) Bagh
- (d) Ellora
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Ajanta
The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani in Cave 1 at Ajanta is one of the most celebrated Indian murals.
Consider the following pairs:
Traditions - Communities
1. Chaliha Sahib Festival - Sindhis
2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra - Gonds
3. Wari-Warkari - Santhals
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) None of the above
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Only pair 1 is correct: Chaliha Sahib is a Sindhi festival.
Nanda Raj Jaat is a pilgrimage of Uttarakhand (Garhwal and Kumaon), and the Wari of the Warkaris is a Marathi pilgrimage to Pandharpur.
Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?
1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Zero or reduced tillage and leaving crop residue on the field cut evaporation and help soil hold moisture.
Gypsum mainly reclaims sodic soils and is not counted as a water-conservation practice in the official key.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Consider the following statements:
The nation-wide 'Soil Health Card Scheme' aims at
1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 3 only
The Soil Health Card scheme (2015) gives farmers soil nutrient status and fertiliser recommendations to check overuse of fertilisers.
It does not expand irrigation or decide bank loans.
Consider the following pairs:
Commonly used / consumed materials - Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them
1. Lipstick - Lead
2. Soft drinks - Brominated vegetable oils
3. Chinese fast food - Monosodium glutamate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three pairs are correct: lipsticks can contain traces of lead, some soft drinks used brominated vegetable oil, and MSG is a common additive in Chinese fast food.
Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?
1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) None of the above statements is correct
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: OLEDs need no backlight and can be made on flexible plastic, used in roll-up displays embedded in clothing, and made transparent.
Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?
1. Arasavalli
2. Amarkantak
3. Omkareshwar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Arasavalli (Srikakulam, Andhra Pradesh) has a famous Sun temple.
Amarkantak is the source of the Narmada and Omkareshwar is a Shiva jyotirlinga.
Consider the following statements:
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: India uses first-past-the-post, so the candidate with the most votes wins, even under 50%.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the Constitution does not reserve the Deputy Speaker's post for the opposition; that is only a convention.
Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?
1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
2. Share of India's exports in world trade increased.
3. FDI inflows increased.
4. India's foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 4 only
- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
After 1991 India's share in world exports, FDI inflows and forex reserves all rose.
Agriculture's share of GDP fell steadily.
What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?
- (a) Production of biolarvicides
- (b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
- (c) Reproductive cloning of animals
- (d) Production of organisms free of diseases
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Reproductive cloning of animals
Somatic cell nuclear transfer moves the nucleus of a body cell into an enucleated egg; it is the technique used for reproductive cloning, as with Dolly the sheep.
Consider the following statements:
1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: NPCI promotes financial inclusion through retail payment systems, and it launched the RuPay card scheme in 2012.
The term 'M-STrIPES' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
- (a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
- (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
- (c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
- (d) Security of National Highways
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
M-STrIPES (Monitoring System for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) is an app-based patrolling and monitoring system for tiger reserves.
What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing 'Goods and Services Tax (GST)'?
1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit' of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
GST replaces many indirect taxes levied by the Centre and States with one tax, creating a common national market.
It is not expected to drastically cut the current account deficit or let India overtake China soon.
'Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and
- (a) European Union
- (b) Gulf Cooperation Council
- (c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
- (d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) European Union
The Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) is the proposed India–European Union free trade agreement, under negotiation since 2007.
Consider the following statements:
1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 1 and 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: India ratified the WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement in 2016, and the TFA was part of the Bali Ministerial Package (2013).
Statement 3 is incorrect: the TFA entered into force in February 2017.
What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
- (a) India's trade with African countries will enormously increase.
- (b) India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
- (c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
- (d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
Chabahar in Iran gives India sea-land access to Afghanistan and Central Asia that bypasses Pakistan.
In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?
1. Service providers
2. Data centres
3. Body corporate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Under the CERT-In Rules, 2013 (under the IT Act), service providers, intermediaries, data centres and body corporates must report cyber security incidents to CERT-In.
Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
- (a) Fundamental Right
- (b) Natural Right
- (c) Constitutional Right
- (d) Legal Right
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Constitutional Right
The right to vote is grounded in Article 326 (adult suffrage) and the right to contest elections is regulated by the Constitution and the Representation of the People Act.
The official key treats it as a constitutional right; the Supreme Court has in some judgments called it a statutory right.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
What is the purpose of 'evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)' project?
- (a) To detect neutrinos
- (b) To detect gravitational waves
- (c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
- (d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) To detect gravitational waves
eLISA (evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna) is an ESA-led space mission to detect gravitational waves using three spacecraft linked by lasers.
What is the purpose of 'Vidyanjali Yojana'?
1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 2 only
- (d) 2 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 2 only
Vidyanjali (2016) is a school volunteer programme in which people from the community and private sector volunteer their time and skills in government schools to improve the quality of education.
It is not about foreign university campuses, and the official key does not count monetary contributions.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
What is the aim of the programme 'Unnat Bharat Abhiyan'?
- (a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government's education system and local communities.
- (b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
- (c) Strengthening India's scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.
- (d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
Unnat Bharat Abhiyan links higher education institutions such as IITs and NITs with nearby villages to tackle development challenges through appropriate technology.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Election Commission has three members (a CEC and two Election Commissioners).
Statement 2 is incorrect: the Commission itself decides election schedules.
Statement 3 is correct: it resolves disputes over splits and mergers of recognised parties under the Symbols Order, 1968.
In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
- (a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
- (b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
- (c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
- (d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
Schedule I gives the highest level of protection under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, the same as for the tiger.
It does not mean the species is extinct in the wild or endemic.
In India, Judicial Review implies
- (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
- (b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
- (c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
- (d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
Judicial review is the power of courts to examine whether laws and executive actions conform to the Constitution and to strike them down if they do not.
With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:
1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2. Quit India Movement launched
3. Second Round Table Conference
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
- (a) 1-2-3
- (b) 2-1-3
- (c) 3-2-1
- (d) 3-1-2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 3-2-1
The Second Round Table Conference was in 1931, the Quit India Movement began in August 1942, and the Royal Indian Navy mutiny was in February 1946.
The order is 3-2-1.
Consider the following statements:
1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct: over the previous decade both tax revenue and the fiscal deficit as a share of GDP rose and fell rather than moving steadily in one direction.
Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?
- (a) Corbett National Park
- (b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
- (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
- (d) Sariska National Park
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary (Madhya Pradesh) was proposed as a second home for Gir's Asiatic lions; the Supreme Court ordered the translocation in 2013.
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 1 and 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Under Article 356 the Council of Ministers is necessarily removed.
The Assembly may be dissolved or kept in suspended animation, and local bodies are not dissolved, so 1 and 3 are not necessary consequences.
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 1 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only
The Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24) prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour and the employment of children in factories and mines.
Abolition of untouchability is in Article 17 and minority rights in Articles 29–30.
Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?
- (a) Sumatra
- (b) Borneo
- (c) Java
- (d) Sri Lanka
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Sumatra
Great Nicobar's southern tip, Indira Point, is only about 150 km from Sumatra (Indonesia), much closer than Java, Borneo or Sri Lanka.
Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
- (a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
- (b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
- (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
- (d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
Cabinet government rests on collective responsibility: the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and, through it, to the people.
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
- (a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
- (b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
- (c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
- (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Indian federalism is not the result of an agreement among the States; it was created by the Constitution, and States can be reorganised by Parliament ('an indestructible Union of destructible States').
