All 100 questions from UPSC Civil Services (IAS) Prelims 2024, GS Paper I. Each question has the correct answer and an explanation of why it is right and the other options are not. Try each one first, then open “Show answer and explanation”.
Answers follow UPSC's official answer key (Series A). Where UPSC dropped a question, it is marked as dropped.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is incorrect: the atmosphere is heated mainly by terrestrial (long-wave) radiation from the Earth's surface, not directly by incoming short-wave solar radiation, most of which passes through it.
Statement-II is correct: carbon dioxide, water vapour and other greenhouse gases absorb long-wave radiation well.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.
Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. The troposphere is about 18 km thick at the equator and about 8 km at the poles, because strong convection at the equator carries heat to great heights.
Consider the following:
1. Pyroclastic debris
2. Ash and dust
3. Nitrogen compounds
4. Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) All four
All four are products of volcanic eruptions: pyroclastic debris, ash and dust, and gases including nitrogen compounds and sulphur compounds (such as SO₂ and H₂S), along with water vapour and CO₂.
Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?
1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: in January (northern winter), isotherms bend northward over the relatively warm oceans and southward over the colder continents.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm currents. They make the North Atlantic warmer, which is why isotherms bend north there.
Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?
- (a) Algeria and Morocco
- (b) Botswana and Namibia
- (c) Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana
- (d) Madagascar and Mozambique
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana
Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana in West Africa are the world's two largest cocoa producers. Together they produce well over half of global output.
With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?
- (a) Ghaghara - Gomati - Gandak - Kosi
- (b) Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi
- (c) Ghaghara - Gomati - Kosi - Gandak
- (d) Gomati - Ghaghara - Kosi - Gandak
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi
Downstream of Prayagraj, the left-bank tributaries join the Ganga in this order from west to east: the Gomati (near Varanasi–Ghazipur), the Ghaghara (near Chhapra), the Gandak (at Hajipur, opposite Patna) and the Kosi (near Kursela).
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.
Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.
Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I
- (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
- (d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, and both explain Statement-I. Rainwater with dissolved CO₂ forms weak carbonic acid, which dissolves rocks such as limestone (carbonation). Dissolved oxygen oxidises iron-bearing minerals (oxidation). Both are forms of chemical weathering.
Consider the following countries:
1. Finland
2. Germany
3. Norway
4. Russia
How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
The North Sea is bordered by the UK, Norway, Denmark, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium and France. Of those listed, only Germany and Norway border it. Finland and Russia lie on the Baltic Sea.
Consider the following information:
1. Dhuandhar - Malwa - Narmada
2. Hundru - Chota Nagpur - Subarnarekha
3. Gersoppa - Western Ghats - Netravati
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only one
Row 1 is incorrect: Dhuandhar Falls are on the Narmada at Bhedaghat near Jabalpur, which is not in the Malwa region.
Row 2 is correct: Hundru Falls are on the Subarnarekha on the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
Row 3 is incorrect: Gersoppa (Jog) Falls are on the Sharavathi, not the Netravati.
Consider the following information:
1. Central Asia - Vosges - Fold mountain
2. Europe - Alps - Block mountain
3. North America - Appalachians - Fold mountain
4. South America - Andes - Fold mountain
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) All four
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Row 1 is incorrect: the Vosges are in Europe (France) and are block mountains.
Row 2 is incorrect: the Alps are young fold mountains, not block mountains.
Rows 3 and 4 are correct: the Appalachians (old) and the Andes (young) are fold mountains.
Consider the following airports:
1. Donyi Polo Airport
2. Kushinagar International Airport
3. Vijayawada International Airport
In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Donyi Polo Airport (Itanagar, opened 2022) and Kushinagar International Airport (opened 2021) were built as greenfield projects. Vijayawada International Airport (Gannavaram) is an existing airport that has been expanded, so it is brownfield.
With reference to "water vapour", which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the water vapour content of air decreases with altitude.
Statement 2 is incorrect: water vapour is highest in the warm, humid tropics (up to about 4% of air by volume) and lowest at the cold, dry poles.
Consider the following description:
1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm - 250 cm.
What is this type of climate?
- (a) Equatorial climate
- (b) China type climate
- (c) Humid subtropical climate
- (d) Marine West coast climate
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Marine West coast climate
These features describe the Marine West Coast (cool temperate oceanic) climate, found in north-west Europe, British Columbia and similar regions. Onshore westerlies over warm currents keep temperature ranges low and bring rain throughout the year, typically 50–250 cm.
With reference to "Coriolis force", which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Coriolis force equals 2vΩ sin φ, so it is proportional to wind velocity (v). It is maximum at the poles (sin 90° = 1) and zero at the equator (sin 0° = 0).
On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?
1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Tropic of Capricorn
4. Arctic Circle
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 3 and 4
- (d) 2 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 2 and 4
On 21 June (summer solstice), all places in the Northern Hemisphere have days longer than 12 hours. The Tropic of Cancer gets about 13.5 hours and the Arctic Circle gets 24 hours. The equator always has about 12 hours, and the Tropic of Capricorn has less than 12.
One of the following regions has the world's largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?
- (a) Amazon Basin
- (b) Congo Basin
- (c) Kikori Basin
- (d) Rio de la Plata Basin
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Congo Basin
The Cuvette Centrale peatlands of the Congo Basin (in the Republic of the Congo and the DRC) are the world's largest tropical peatland complex. They store about 29 billion tonnes of carbon, roughly three years of global fossil-fuel emissions.
With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:
1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct. PFAS ('forever chemicals') are found widely in drinking water, food and packaging. Their very strong carbon–fluorine bonds resist degradation, and they bioaccumulate in animal and human bodies.
Consider the following:
1. Carabid beetles
2. Centipedes
3. Flies
4. Termites
5. Wasps
Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?
- (a) Only two
- (b) Only three
- (c) Only four
- (d) All five
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only three
Parasitoids (whose larvae develop in or on a host and eventually kill it) are found among wasps (the largest group), flies (e.g. tachinid flies) and some beetles, including certain carabid (ground) beetles. Centipedes are predators and termites are decomposers. So three.
Consider the following plants :
1. Groundnut
2. Horse-gram
3. Soybean
How many of the above belong to the pea family?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) All three
Groundnut, horse-gram and soybean all belong to the pea (legume) family, Fabaceae. They fix atmospheric nitrogen through root nodules.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the "vermin" category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
UPSC dropped this question in the final answer key, so no option is marked correct.
For context: the Indian flying fox was listed as 'vermin' in Schedule V of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, but the 2022 amendment reorganised the schedules. It is a fruit bat that eats fruit and nectar, not blood, so Statement-II is factually wrong.
The organisms "Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater" are:
- (a) Birds
- (b) Fish
- (c) Insects
- (d) Reptiles
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Insects
Cicadas, froghoppers and pond skaters are all insects. Cicadas and froghoppers are Hemiptera (true bugs) that feed on plant sap, and pond skaters (water striders) glide on water using surface tension.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.
Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Most modern chewing gums use a synthetic gum base of polymers such as polyvinyl acetate and polyisobutylene. These plastics do not biodegrade, so discarded gum becomes persistent litter.
Consider the following pairs:
1. Brazil - Indri
2. Indonesia - Elk
3. Madagascar - Bonobo
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) None
None is correct. The indri is a lemur endemic to Madagascar, not Brazil. The elk is found in North America and northern Eurasia, not Indonesia. The bonobo lives only in the Democratic Republic of the Congo, not Madagascar.
Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:
1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 2
- (d) 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. The World Toilet Organization is a global non-profit founded in Singapore in 2001, not a UN agency. It runs the World Toilet Summit and World Toilet College and created World Toilet Day (later adopted by the UN). It is an advocacy and capacity-building body and does not give grants to countries.
Consider the following statements:
1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: lions breed throughout the year.
Statement 2 is correct: cheetahs cannot roar; they purr, chirp and hiss.
Statement 3 is incorrect: male leopards do mark territory with scent (spraying urine and scraping).
Which one of the following is the correct description of "100 Million Farmers"?
- (a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
- (b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
- (c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
- (d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
100 Million Farmers is a World Economic Forum platform to accelerate the transition to food and water systems that are net-zero, nature-positive and more resilient for farmers.
Consider the following:
1. Battery storage
2. Biomass generators
3. Fuel cells
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
How many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Resources"?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) All four
All four are Distributed Energy Resources: small-scale generation or storage located close to where the power is used. Examples are battery storage, biomass generators, fuel cells and rooftop solar PV.
Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?
- (a) Fig
- (b) Mahua
- (c) Sandalwood
- (d) Silk cotton
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Fig
Fig trees and fig wasps have coevolved in obligate mutualism. Each fig species is generally pollinated only by its own species of fig wasp, which in turn breeds only inside that fig's flowers (the syconium).
Consider the following:
1. Butterflies
2. Fish
3. Frogs
How many of the above have poisonous species among them?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) All three
All three groups include poisonous species: butterflies (e.g. the monarch, which stores toxins from milkweed), fish (e.g. pufferfish with tetrodotoxin) and frogs (e.g. poison dart frogs).
Consider the following:
1. Cashew
2. Papaya
3. Red sanders
How many of the above trees are actually native to India?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Only one
Only red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus), endemic to the southern Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh, is native to India. Cashew came from Brazil and papaya from tropical America, both introduced by the Portuguese.
With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:
1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: RTGs are not reactors. They convert the heat from the natural radioactive decay of an isotope into electricity using thermocouples, with no fission chain reaction.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: RTGs power deep-space probes such as Voyager and Curiosity, and they commonly use plutonium-238, a by-product of nuclear weapons programmes.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.
Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is incorrect: giant (massive) stars live much shorter lives, a few million years, than dwarf stars, which can live billions of years.
Statement-II is correct: massive stars fuse their fuel at a far higher rate, which is why they burn out sooner.
Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?
- (a) Nitric oxide
- (b) Nitrous oxide
- (c) Nitrogen dioxide
- (d) Nitrogen pentoxide
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Nitric oxide
Nitric oxide (NO) is produced in the body by the endothelium lining blood vessels. It relaxes vascular smooth muscle, dilating vessels and increasing blood flow. This is the basis of nitroglycerin therapy for angina.
Consider the following activities:
1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
2. Monitoring of precipitation
3. Tracking the migration of animals
In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Radars are used to monitor precipitation (Doppler weather radar) and to track the migration of birds, bats and insects. Detecting narcotics on passengers relies on other technologies, such as X-ray and trace-detection scanners and sniffer dogs. So two activities.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Consider the following aircraft:
1. Rafale
2. MiG-29
3. Tejas MK-1
How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) None
None of them is a fifth-generation fighter. The Rafale is generally classed as 4.5 generation, and the MiG-29 and Tejas Mk-1 as fourth or 4+ generation. Fifth-generation fighters, such as the F-22, F-35 and J-20, feature stealth and advanced sensor fusion.
In which of the following are hydrogels used?
1. Controlled drug delivery in patients
2. Mobile air-conditioning systems
3. Preparation of industrial lubricants
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Hydrogels are water-absorbing polymer networks. They are widely used in biomedicine, for controlled drug delivery, contact lenses and wound dressings. As per the official key, only drug delivery is the correct use among those listed; hydrogels are not standard in mobile air-conditioning or industrial lubricants.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?
- (a) Hydrogen peroxide
- (b) Hydronium
- (c) Oxygen
- (d) Water vapour
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Water vapour
A hydrogen fuel cell combines hydrogen with oxygen from the air to produce electricity. The only tailpipe emission is water (vapour).
Recently, the term "pumped-storage hydropower" is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?
- (a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields
- (b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops
- (c) Long duration energy storage
- (d) Rainwater harvesting system
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Long duration energy storage
Pumped-storage hydropower pumps water to an upper reservoir when power is cheap or in surplus, and releases it through turbines when demand is high. It is the largest form of long-duration energy storage and helps integrate solar and wind power.
"Membrane Bioreactors" are often discussed in the context of:
- (a) Assisted reproductive technologies
- (b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies
- (c) Vaccine production technologies
- (d) Wastewater treatment technologies
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Wastewater treatment technologies
Membrane bioreactors combine biological treatment (activated sludge) with membrane filtration (micro- or ultrafiltration). They produce high-quality treated wastewater that is suitable for reuse.
With reference to the Indian economy, "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" are the instruments of:
- (a) Bond market
- (b) Forex market
- (c) Money market
- (d) Stock market
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Money market
CBLO (Collateralised Borrowing and Lending Obligation) was a money-market instrument run by the Clearing Corporation of India for short-term borrowing against government securities as collateral. It was replaced by TREPS (Tri-party Repo) in 2018.
The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:
- (a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.
- (b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.
- (c) the birth rate minus death rate.
- (d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
The total fertility rate is the average number of children a woman would bear over her reproductive life (ages 15–49) at current age-specific fertility rates. Option (a) describes the crude birth rate.
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) 2 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 2 is correct: Foreign Portfolio Investors can invest in government securities within prescribed limits, and through the Fully Accessible Route without limits.
Statement 3 is correct: stock exchanges run separate debt segments.
The official key treats statement 1 as correct as well. Note that the Liquidity Adjustment Facility is primarily available to banks and standalone primary dealers, so check this point against current RBI rules.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?
1. Insurance Companies
2. Pension Funds
3. Retail Investors
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three can trade in corporate bonds and government securities. Insurance companies and pension funds are major institutional investors in both. Retail investors can buy G-Secs through RBI Retail Direct and stock exchanges, and corporate bonds through exchanges and online bond platforms.
Consider the following:
1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
2. Motor vehicles
3. Currency swap
Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) 1 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
Exchange-Traded Funds and currency swaps are financial instruments: tradeable contracts that represent monetary value or rights. Motor vehicles are physical (real) assets, not financial instruments.
With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Economic activity - Sector
1. Storage of agricultural produce - Secondary
2. Dairy farm - Primary
3. Mineral exploration - Tertiary
4. Weaving cloth - Secondary
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Pair 1 is incorrect: storage of agricultural produce is a service, so it is tertiary.
Pair 2 is correct: dairy farming is primary.
Pair 3 is incorrect: mineral exploration and mining are primary.
Pair 4 is correct: weaving cloth is manufacturing, so it is secondary.
Consider the following materials:
1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grain
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste
Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 and 4 only
- (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
- (d) 1 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four can be used as feedstock for Sustainable Aviation Fuel: agricultural residues, corn grain (via ethanol, alcohol-to-jet), wastewater sludge and wood-mill waste, through pathways such as HEFA, Fischer–Tropsch and alcohol-to-jet.
With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Items - Category
1. Farmer's plough - Working capital
2. Computer - Fixed capital
3. Yarn used by the weaver - Fixed capital
4. Petrol - Working capital
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Fixed capital (tools, machines) is used repeatedly over many production cycles, while working capital (raw materials, fuel) is used up in one cycle.
Pair 1 is incorrect: a plough is fixed capital.
Pair 2 is correct: a computer is fixed capital.
Pair 3 is incorrect: yarn is working capital.
Pair 4 is correct: petrol is working capital.
Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote "an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items"?
- (a) Big data analytics
- (b) Cryptography
- (c) Metaverse
- (d) Virtual matrix
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Metaverse
The metaverse is an interoperable network of persistent 3D virtual worlds that millions of users can access at the same time, where they can own and trade virtual items (often using NFTs).
With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:
1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: RBI requires a minimum paid-up capital (₹500 crore) for a wholly owned subsidiary of a foreign bank.
The official key also marks statement 2 incorrect. RBI's framework sets a board-composition rule that a portion of directors be Indian nationals resident in India; check the exact proportion against the current RBI directions.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:
1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: under the CSR Rules, activities that benefit only the company or its employees and their families do not count as CSR.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires eligible companies to spend at least 2% of their average net profits of the previous three years on CSR.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. US Treasury bonds are backed only by the 'full faith and credit' of the US Government, not by any specific hard assets. In a default, holders have no collateral to seize, and sovereign immunity limits enforcement.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
UPSC dropped this question in the final answer key, so no option is marked correct.
For context: syndicated lending does spread default risk across lenders, so Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is factually incorrect, because a syndicated loan can be a term loan or a revolving credit line.
Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:
1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 1 and 3 only
- (c) 2 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4
Statement 1 is correct: the e-rupee is sovereign currency issued by RBI, in line with its monetary policy.
Statement 2 is correct: like cash, it is a liability on RBI's balance sheet.
Statement 3 is incorrect: it is not protected against inflation by design.
Statement 4 is correct: it is freely convertible at par with commercial bank money and cash.
With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?
1. Nayaputta
2. Shakyamuni
3. Tathagata
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Shakyamuni ('sage of the Shakyas') and Tathagata ('one who has thus gone') are epithets of the Buddha. Nayaputta (Nataputta) refers to Vardhamana Mahavira of the Jnatrika clan.
Consider the following information:
1. Chandraketugarh - Odisha - Trading Port town
2. Inamgaon - Maharashtra - Chalcolithic site
3. Mangadu - Kerala - Megalithic site
4. Salihundam - Andhra Pradesh - Rock-cut cave shrines
In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 and 3
- (c) 3 and 4
- (d) 1 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3
Row 1 is incorrect: Chandraketugarh, an ancient trading centre, is in West Bengal, not Odisha.
Row 2 is correct: Inamgaon is a Chalcolithic site in Maharashtra.
Row 3 is correct: Mangadu in Kerala is a megalithic site.
Row 4 is incorrect: Salihundam in Andhra Pradesh is known for Buddhist stupas and monasteries, not rock-cut cave shrines.
Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?
- (a) Krishnadevaraya
- (b) Narasimha Saluva
- (c) Muhammad Shah III
- (d) Yusuf Adil Shah
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Krishnadevaraya
Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagara, who maintained good relations with the Portuguese because of their horse trade, permitted them to build a fort at Bhatkal on the Kanara coast.
With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:
1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
UPSC dropped this question in the final answer key, so no option is marked correct.
For context: the Ryotwari Settlement was introduced by Thomas Munro and Alexander Read, not Cornwallis, and it gave no automatic remission for bad harvests. Under Cornwallis's Permanent Settlement (1793), a zamindar who failed to pay on time had his estate auctioned under the 'sunset law'.
Consider the following statements:
1. There are no parables in Upanishads.
2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Upanishads contain many parables and dialogues, such as Nachiketa and Yama (Katha), Satyakama Jabala and Svetaketu (Chandogya).
Statement 2 is correct: the major Upanishads (c. 800–300 BCE) predate the Puranas, which were compiled mainly in the Gupta and post-Gupta periods.
Consider the following statements:
1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India is a member of the International Grains Council (London), which administers the Grains Trade Convention.
Statement 2 is incorrect: IGC membership is not required to export or import rice or wheat.
Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?
- (a) Chhau dance
- (b) Durga puja
- (c) Garba dance
- (d) Kumbh mela
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Garba dance
Garba of Gujarat was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in December 2023. Durga Puja in Kolkata was inscribed in 2021, Kumbh Mela in 2017 and Chhau dance in 2010.
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
- (a) C. Rajagopalachari
- (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- (c) T.T. Krishnamachari
- (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Dr Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was the provisional (temporary) President at the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly on 9 December 1946. Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President on 11 December 1946.
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Government of India Act, 1935 provided for an All-India Federation of British Indian provinces and princely states, though it never came into being.
Statement 2 is incorrect: defence and foreign affairs were 'reserved subjects' under the Governor-General's control, not under the federal legislature.
Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?
- (a) Kavyalankara
- (b) Natyashastra
- (c) Madhyama-vyayoga
- (d) Mahabhashya
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Madhyama-vyayoga
Madhyama-vyayoga is one of the plays attributed to Bhasa, along with Svapnavasavadatta and others. Kavyalankara is by Bhamaha, the Natyashastra by Bharata and the Mahabhashya by Patanjali.
Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:
- (a) Prajnaparamita Sutra
- (b) Visuddhimagga
- (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
- (d) Lalitavistara
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
Sanghabhuti, a monk from Kashmir who went to China in the late fourth century, is credited with a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya, the monastic code of the Sarvastivada school.
Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:
1. Shantiniketan
2. Rani-ki-Vav
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya
How many of the above properties were included in 2023?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Two were inscribed in 2023: Santiniketan (West Bengal) and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas (Karnataka). Rani-ki-Vav was inscribed in 2014 and the Mahabodhi Temple Complex in 2002.
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Article 368(1) empowers Parliament to amend 'by way of addition, variation or repeal' any provision of the Constitution, subject to the basic structure doctrine.
Consider the following countries:
1. Italy
2. Japan
3. Nigeria
4. South Korea
5. South Africa
Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?
- (a) 1, 2 and 4
- (b) 1, 3 and 5
- (c) 2 and 4 only
- (d) 3 and 5 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4
Italy, Japan and South Korea are frequently in the news for very low fertility (South Korea has the world's lowest TFR, below 1), ageing populations and shrinking populations. Nigeria and South Africa have relatively young, growing populations.
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) 1, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 is correct: Article 109 lays down the special procedure for Money Bills.
Statement 2 is correct: a Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 3 is correct: the Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill. It can only recommend changes within 14 days.
Statement 4 is incorrect: the Lok Sabha may accept or reject those recommendations.
Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces? Army - Airforce - Navy
1. Brigadier - Air Commodore - Commander
2. Major General - Air Vice Marshal - Vice Admiral
3. Major - Squadron Leader - Lieutenant Commander
4. Lieutenant Colonel - Group Captain - Captain
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 4
- (b) 1 and 3
- (c) 2, 3 and 4
- (d) 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 3 only
Only row 3 is correct: Major = Squadron Leader = Lieutenant Commander.
Row 1 is incorrect: Brigadier = Air Commodore = Commodore, not Commander.
Row 2 is incorrect: Major General = Air Vice Marshal = Rear Admiral, not Vice Admiral.
Row 4 is incorrect: Lieutenant Colonel = Wing Commander = Commander. Group Captain and Captain are equivalent to Colonel.
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 2 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
After the 2002 amendment of the NEC Act, the Council comprises the Governors and Chief Ministers of the eight North-Eastern States and three members nominated by the President. The Union Home Minister is not a member under the Act. Since 2018 the Home Minister has served as ex-officio Chairman by a Cabinet decision.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
- (a) One
- (b) Two
- (c) Three
- (d) Four
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Four
Four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted: in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002, under the Delimitation Commission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 1, 2 and 4
- (c) 1, 3 and 4
- (d) 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
The 71st Amendment (1992) added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule. Maithili, along with Bodo, Dogri and Santhali, was added by the 92nd Amendment (2003).
Consider the following pairs:
Party - Its Leader
1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh - Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2. Socialist Party - C. Rajagopalachari
3. Congress for Democracy - Jagjivan Ram
4. Swatantra Party - Acharya Narendra Dev
How many of the above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) Only three
- (d) All four
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two
Pair 1 is correct: Dr Syama Prasad Mookerjee founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh (1951).
Pair 2 is incorrect: the Socialist Party was led by Acharya Narendra Dev and Jayaprakash Narayan, not C. Rajagopalachari.
Pair 3 is correct: Jagjivan Ram formed the Congress for Democracy (1977).
Pair 4 is incorrect: the Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari, not Acharya Narendra Dev.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: Municipalities are in Part IXA (74th Amendment), Emergency provisions in Part XVIII (Articles 352–360), and amendment of the Constitution in Part XX (Article 368).
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
- (a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
- (b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
- (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
- (d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
Inter-State quarantine (including seaports and airports) is a Union subject (Entry 81, Union List, along with inter-State migration). Inter-State trade and commerce (Entry 42) and corporation tax (Entry 85) are also Union subjects. So option (c) is the only correct one.
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court placed the Right to Privacy?
- (a) Article 15
- (b) Article 16
- (c) Article 19
- (d) Article 21
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Article 21
In Justice K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge bench held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right, intrinsic to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and also part of the freedoms in Part III.
What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?
1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: the CDS is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the CDS does not exercise military command, including over the three Service Chiefs.
Statement 3 is correct: the CDS is the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister on all tri-service matters.
Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:
- (a) Operation Sankalp
- (b) Operation Maitri
- (c) Operation Sadbhavana
- (d) Operation Madad
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Operation Sadbhavana
Operation Sadbhavana is the Indian Army's civic-action programme in remote areas, mainly in Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh and the North-East. It covers education, health, infrastructure and livelihoods to win hearts and minds.
The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:
- (a) Canada and the United States of America
- (b) Chile and Argentina
- (c) China and India
- (d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Canada and the United States of America
The Canada–USA border, about 8,891 km including the Alaska section, is the longest international border in the world.
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Lok Sabha Ethics Committee began as an ad hoc committee (2000) and became permanent in 2015.
Statement 2 is incorrect: complaints can also come from any person through a Lok Sabha member, not only from members.
Statement 3 is correct: it cannot take up sub-judice matters.
Consider the following statements regarding Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam:
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1 and 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the reservation takes effect after delimitation based on the first census conducted after the Act's commencement, not from the 18th Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct: it will remain in force for 15 years, extendable by Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct: one-third of the SC and ST reserved seats are reserved for women of those groups.
Which of the following statements about 'Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023' are correct?
1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 1, 2 and 4
- (c) 1, 3 and 4
- (d) 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4
Statement 1 is incorrect: Mitra Shakti is the India–Sri Lanka joint military exercise, not India–Bangladesh.
Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct: the 2023 edition began at Aundh (Pune), focused on counter-terrorism operations under a UN mandate, and included the Indian Air Force.
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
- (a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
- (b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
- (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
- (d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
A writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal, forbidding it from continuing proceedings that exceed its jurisdiction. It is preventive, while certiorari quashes an order already passed.
Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: under Article 342, the President, after consulting the Governor, notifies Scheduled Tribes for each State, and Parliament can modify the list.
Statement 2 is correct: ST status is State-specific, so a community that is an ST in one State may not be in another.
With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Under Article 112, the President causes the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before both Houses, and in practice the Finance Minister presents it. Under Article 113(3), no demand for a grant can be made except on the President's recommendation. The official key marks both statements correct. Note that statement 1's wording ('on behalf of the Prime Minister') differs from Article 112, which refers to the President.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Who of the following is the author of the books "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters"?
- (a) Bhupender Yadav
- (b) Nalin Mehta
- (c) Shashi Tharoor
- (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar wrote 'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World' (2020) and 'Why Bharat Matters' (2024).
Consider the following pairs:
Country - Reason for being in the news
1. Argentina - Worst economic crisis
2. Sudan - War between the country's regular army and paramilitary forces
3. Turkey - Rescinded its membership of NATO
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one pair
- (b) Only two pairs
- (c) All three pairs
- (d) None of the pairs
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Pair 1 is correct: Argentina was in a deep economic crisis with very high inflation.
Pair 2 is correct: in Sudan, war broke out in 2023 between the army (SAF) and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Turkey has not left NATO; it remains a member.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. The SUMED (Suez–Mediterranean) pipeline in Egypt runs from Ain Sukhna on the Gulf of Suez (Red Sea) to Sidi Kerir on the Mediterranean. This lets Gulf oil reach Europe by bypassing the Suez Canal for very large tankers.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Red Sea lies in a hot desert belt with very little rainfall and high evaporation. No permanent rivers flow into it, which is why it is one of the saltiest seas.
According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?
- (a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
- (b) Ships using fossil fuels
- (c) Extraction of metals from ores
- (d) Power plants using fossil fuels
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Power plants using fossil fuels
According to the US EPA, the largest source of sulphur dioxide is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities. Metal extraction, ships and locomotives are smaller sources.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.
Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d'état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Military coups in Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger, Chad and Guinea since 2020 have weakened governance and security cooperation in the Sahel, worsening instability and jihadist violence.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is incorrect: India does import apples from the USA. Retaliatory duties were removed in 2023, and imports rose.
Statement-II is correct: importing genetically modified food requires the approval of the competent authorities (FSSAI and GEAC).
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Under Article 96, while a resolution for the Speaker's removal is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside, so statement 1 is correct. The Speaker does have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings, and is entitled to vote in the first instance (but not to a casting vote). So statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2
- (c) 2 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
Statement 1 is correct: a bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses when it is dissolved.
Statement 2 is correct: a bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses.
Statement 3 is incorrect: under Article 108(5), a bill for which the President has notified a joint sitting does not lapse.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2
- (c) 2 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2 and 3
Statement 1 is incorrect: the President prorogues the Houses on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Statement 2 is correct: prorogation usually follows adjournment sine die, but a House in session can also be prorogued.
Statement 3 is correct: the President dissolves the Lok Sabha, ordinarily on the Council of Ministers' advice.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.
Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
Statement-I is correct: the European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act in 2024.
Statement-II is incorrect: the EU's climate-neutrality target is 2050, and the Act aims for EU manufacturing to meet at least 40% of its clean-technology needs by 2030, not to develop all of its clean technology itself.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.
Statement-II: Venezuela has the world's largest oil reserves.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is incorrect: Venezuela has not achieved a rapid recovery. Over 7 million people have emigrated during its prolonged economic crisis.
Statement-II is correct: Venezuela has the world's largest proven oil reserves.
With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:
1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct. Since 2016 the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme has been a Central Sector Scheme with 100% central funding. It digitises cadastral maps and has an initiative to transliterate Records of Rights into any of the 22 Eighth-Schedule languages.
With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements:
1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: PMSMA guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care to pregnant women in their second and third trimesters on the 9th of every month. It does not provide six months of post-delivery care.
Statement 2 is correct: private-sector specialists can volunteer to provide services at government facilities.
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1, 3 and 4
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 2 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the entry age for PM-SYM is 18–40 years.
Statement 2 is correct: the beneficiary makes an age-specific monthly contribution, matched by the Government.
Statement 3 is correct: subscribers get an assured pension of ₹3,000 a month after 60.
Statement 4 is incorrect: family pension (50%) goes only to the spouse, not to unmarried daughters.
