All 100 questions from UPSC Civil Services (IAS) Prelims 2019, GS Paper I. Each question has the correct answer and an explanation of why it is right and the other options are not. Try each one first, then open “Show answer and explanation”.
Answers follow UPSC's official answer key (Series A). Where UPSC dropped a question, it is marked as dropped.
With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: jagirdars held revenue assignments (jagirs) in lieu of salary for military and administrative service, not specifically for judicial and police duties; zamindars, besides collecting revenue, also had duties such as maintaining order and supplying troops.
Statement 2 is incorrect: jagirs were transferable and not hereditary, whereas zamindari rights were hereditary.
With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
- (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
- (c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
- (d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
Land ceiling laws fixed the maximum land a family (not each individual) could hold, to stop owners from evading the ceiling by splitting land among members.
Land reforms did not aim to give land to every landless person, did not make cash crops predominant, and ceiling laws allowed exemptions (e.g. plantations, orchards, religious trusts).
The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
- (a) International Monetary Fund
- (b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
- (c) World Economic Forum
- (d) World Bank
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) World Economic Forum
The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the World Economic Forum (Geneva).
Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813':
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Charter Act of 1813 ended the Company's trade monopoly in India, keeping only the tea trade and the China trade.
Statement 2 is correct: it asserted the Crown's sovereignty over the Company's Indian territories.
Statement 3 is incorrect: the revenues of India remained with the Company; Parliament did not take control of them under this Act.
With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Swadeshi Movement (1905) revived indigenous crafts and industries (textile mills, match and soap factories, banks), and the National Council of Education was set up in 1906 to promote national education.
Consider the following pairs:
Movement/Organization - Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League - Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha - Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement - E. V. Ramaswami Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three pairs are correct: Gandhi founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League (1932, later Harijan Sevak Sangh); Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the first president of the All India Kisan Sabha (1936); and E. V. Ramaswami Naicker (Periyar) led the Self-Respect Movement.
Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
- (a) Chanhudaro
- (b) Kot Diji
- (c) Sohgaura
- (d) Desalpur
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Sohgaura
Sohgaura (Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh) is known for a Mauryan-era copper plate inscription, not a Harappan site.
Chanhudaro and Kot Diji (Sindh) and Desalpur (Kutch, Gujarat) are Harappan sites.
In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
- (a) Kanganahalli
- (b) Sanchi
- (c) Shahbazgarhi
- (d) Sohgaura
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Kanganahalli
At Kanganahalli (near Sannati, Karnataka) a Buddhist stupa relief shows Ashoka with his queens, labelled 'Ranyo Ashoka', the only known portrait of Ashoka with his name.
Consider the following:
1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals
Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are features of Mahayana Buddhism: the Buddha is treated as divine, followers aim to follow the Bodhisattva path to help all beings, and image worship and rituals became common.
With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
- (b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
- (c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
- (d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
In the Gupta period vishti (forced, unpaid labour) was a kind of tax paid in labour to the State, so it was considered a source of State income.
It was not absent in central India or Kathiawar, labourers were not paid weekly wages, and there was no rule about sending the eldest son.
Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
- (a) Chalukya
- (b) Chandela
- (c) Rashtrakuta
- (d) Vijayanagara
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Vijayanagara
Kalyana mandapas, ornate pillared halls for the ritual marriage of the deity, were a distinctive feature of Vijayanagara temples (e.g. Vittala and Varadaraja temples).
Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: in the Delhi Sultanate the official who collected revenue was called the amil.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the iqta system came from West Asian Islamic practice, not an ancient Indian institution.
Statement 3 is incorrect: the office of Mir Bakshi belongs to the Mughal period, not the Khaljis.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Consider the following statements:
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: Nimbarka lived around the 12th–13th century, long before Akbar (16th century).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Kabir (15th century) predates Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi (1564–1624), so he could not have been influenced by him.
With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.
2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 1 and 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: Gandhi campaigned against indentured labour, which was abolished in 1917.
Statement 2 is incorrect: at Lord Chelmsford's War Conference (Delhi, 1918) Gandhi supported the resolution on recruiting Indians for the war.
Statement 3 is correct: during the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930) the Congress was declared illegal.
With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
Person - Position held
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru - President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K. C. Neogy - Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P. C. Joshi - General Secretary, Communist Party of India
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: Tej Bahadur Sapru was a president of the All India Liberal Federation; K. C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly; and P. C. Joshi was the first General Secretary of the Communist Party of India (1935–47).
With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
- (b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
- (c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
- (d) Tansen invented many Ragas.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
Statement (a) is not correct: the title 'Tansen' was given to Ramtanu by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior; Akbar gave him the title 'Mian'.
Tansen composed dhrupads on Hindu deities and songs praising his patrons, and created ragas such as Miyan ki Malhar, Miyan ki Todi and Darbari Kanada.
Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
- (a) Humayun
- (b) Akbar
- (c) Jahangir
- (d) Shah Jahan
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Jahangir
Under Jahangir, Mughal painting shifted from illustrated manuscripts (as under Akbar) to albums (muraqqa) and individual portraits and natural studies.
Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
- (a) Manas National Park
- (b) Namdapha National Park
- (c) Neora Valley National Park
- (d) Valley of Flowers National Park
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Valley of Flowers National Park
Valley of Flowers National Park (Uttarakhand) lies wholly at about 3,200–6,700 m in the temperate alpine zone.
Manas, Namdapha and Neora Valley span lower tropical or subtropical elevations too.
Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
- (a) Department of Science and Technology
- (b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
- (c) NITI Aayog
- (d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) NITI Aayog
The Atal Innovation Mission (2016), which runs Atal Tinkering Labs and Atal Incubation Centres, is set up under NITI Aayog.
On 21st June, the Sun
- (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
- (b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
- (c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
- (d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
On 21 June (summer solstice) the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer, and places on and north of the Arctic Circle have 24 hours of daylight, so the Sun does not set there.
The Antarctic Circle has 24 hours of darkness.
Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?
- (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
- (b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
- (c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
- (d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
Tobacco, cocoa and rubber were all domesticated in the Americas (New World) and later taken to the Old World.
Cotton, coffee, sugarcane and wheat were domesticated in the Old World (cotton also independently in the Americas).
Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Asiatic lion survives in the wild only in Gir (Gujarat).
Statement 2 is incorrect: the double-humped (Bactrian) camel is found in Central Asia (Mongolia, China) as well as Ladakh.
Statement 3 is incorrect: the one-horned rhinoceros also lives in Nepal.
Consider the following pairs:
Famous place - River
1. Pandharpur - Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli - Cauvery
3. Hampi - Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Pandharpur is on the Chandrabhaga (Bhima) and Tiruchirappalli on the Cauvery.
Hampi lies on the Tungabhadra, not the Malaprabha, so pair 3 is wrong.
In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
- (a) poverty rates vary from State to State
- (b) price levels vary from State to State
- (c) Gross State Product varies from State to State
- (d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) price levels vary from State to State
State poverty lines differ because price levels (cost of the same consumption basket) differ between States; the Tendulkar and Rangarajan methods use State-specific price indices.
In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
- (a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
- (b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
- (c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
- (d) Reducing the global warming
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Reducing the global warming
Cirrus cloud thinning (letting more heat escape to space) and injecting sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere (reflecting sunlight) are geoengineering ideas proposed to reduce global warming.
In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?
- (a) Extraction of rare earth elements
- (b) Natural gas extraction technologies
- (c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
- (d) Waste-to-energy technologies
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Waste-to-energy technologies
Pyrolysis (heating waste without oxygen) and plasma gasification (breaking waste down with very high-temperature plasma) are waste-to-energy technologies that turn waste into fuel gas, oil or char.
Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
- (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
- (b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
- (c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
- (d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (Kerala–Tamil Nadu) includes the Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney wildlife sanctuaries and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
Option (b) lists parts of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
Consider the following statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 2 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four are correct: the green sea turtle is herbivorous; many fish (e.g. parrotfish, some carp) are herbivores; dugongs and manatees are herbivorous marine mammals; and some snakes (e.g. many vipers, boas) give birth to live young.
Consider the following pairs:
Wildlife - Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer - Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin - Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat - Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Pair 1 is correct: the blue-finned mahseer is found in the Cauvery.
Pair 2 is wrong: the Irrawaddy dolphin lives in Chilika Lake and coastal estuaries, not the Chambal (which has the Gangetic dolphin).
Pair 3 is correct: the rusty-spotted cat occurs in the Eastern Ghats.
Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?
- (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
- (b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
- (c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
- (d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
Microbeads (tiny plastic particles in cosmetics and cleansers) pass through water treatment into seas, where marine animals swallow them and they carry toxins up the food chain, so they harm marine ecosystems.
Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
- (a) anti-malarial drug
- (b) biodiesel
- (c) pulp for paper industry
- (d) textile fibre
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) textile fibre
Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia, 'allo') yields a strong natural fibre; it is being promoted as a sustainable source of textile fibre in Uttarakhand and Nepal.
For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Remote sensing is used for all three: vegetation indices estimate chlorophyll content, satellite data on flooded paddy area and methane help estimate greenhouse gas emissions from rice fields, and thermal infrared sensors measure land surface temperature.
Consider the following States:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
- (a) 2-3-1-4
- (b) 2-3-4-1
- (c) 3-2-4-1
- (d) 3-2-1-4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 3-2-4-1
Forest cover as a share of area (India State of Forest Report 2017): Maharashtra about 16%, Madhya Pradesh about 25%, Odisha about 33% and Chhattisgarh about 41%.
The ascending order is 3-2-4-1.
Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: warming can destabilise methane hydrates and release methane; large deposits lie in Arctic permafrost and under the seafloor on continental margins; and atmospheric methane is oxidised to carbon dioxide with a lifetime of roughly a decade.
Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 1 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Burning crop and biomass residue releases carbon monoxide, methane and sulphur dioxide directly; it also releases nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds that form ground-level ozone.
The official key counts all four.
Consider the following pairs:
Sea - Bordering country
1. Adriatic Sea - Albania
2. Black Sea - Croatia
3. Caspian Sea - Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea - Morocco
5. Red Sea - Syria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
- (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 2 and 5 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Albania borders the Adriatic, Kazakhstan the Caspian and Morocco the Mediterranean.
Croatia is on the Adriatic, not the Black Sea, and Syria is on the Mediterranean, not the Red Sea.
Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
- (a) China
- (b) India
- (c) Myanmar
- (d) Vietnam
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) India
India has been the world's largest rice exporter since 2012, ahead of Thailand and Vietnam, led by basmati and non-basmati exports.
Consider the following pairs:
Glacier - River
1. Bandarpunch - Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri - Chenab
3. Milam - Mandakini
4. Siachen - Nubra
5. Zemu - Manas
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) 1, 2 and 4
- (b) 1, 3 and 4
- (c) 2 and 5
- (d) 3 and 5
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4
Bandarpunch feeds the Yamuna, Bara Shigri the Chandra (Chenab system) and Siachen the Nubra.
Milam feeds the Gori Ganga, not the Mandakini, and Zemu feeds the Teesta, not the Manas.
In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
- (a) pesticides in agriculture
- (b) preservatives in processed foods
- (c) fruit-ripening agents
- (d) moisturising agents in cosmetics
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) pesticides in agriculture
Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos are highly toxic agricultural pesticides (insecticides); Kerala and others have restricted them and they have been linked to poisonings.
Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Ramsar Convention requires wise use of all wetlands and protection of designated Ramsar sites, not mandatory protection of every wetland.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2010 Rules were framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, not on Ramsar's recommendations.
Statement 3 is correct: the 2010 Rules covered the wetland's catchment or drainage area as determined by the authority.
Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 2 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: fertilised agricultural soils emit nitrogen oxides (including nitrous oxide); cattle dung and urine release ammonia; and poultry litter releases ammonia and other reactive nitrogen compounds (Indian Nitrogen Assessment, 2017).
What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
- (a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
- (b) Tropical rain forests
- (c) Underground cave systems
- (d) Water reservoirs
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Water reservoirs
Aliyar (Tamil Nadu), Isapur (Maharashtra) and Kangsabati (West Bengal) are dams and water reservoirs.
In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: H-CNG reduces carbon monoxide emissions but does not eliminate them.
Statement 2 is correct: H-CNG lowers carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
Statement 3 is correct: about 18–20% hydrogen by volume can be blended with CNG for buses.
Statement 4 is incorrect: hydrogen is costly to produce, so H-CNG is not cheaper than CNG.
Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
- (a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.
- (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.
- (c) The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
- (d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.
Dew forms when the ground cools enough by radiating heat on clear nights.
On cloudy nights clouds absorb and re-radiate (reflect back) the Earth's outgoing radiation, so the surface does not cool to the dew point; the official key takes 'reflect back' as the answer.
Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: it was the 39th Amendment (1975) that placed the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review; the 44th Amendment (1978) repealed that provision.
Statement 2 is correct: in 2015 the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment, which created the National Judicial Appointments Commission, as violating the independence of the judiciary, a part of the basic structure.
Consider the following statements:
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 3 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 the Speaker (or Chairman) may admit or refuse to admit the motion.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the Constitution does not define 'incapacity' or 'proved misbehaviour'.
Statement 3 is correct: the procedure is set out in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
Statement 4 is correct: the motion must be passed in each House by a majority of total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting.
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
- (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
- (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
- (c) Indira Gandhi
- (d) Morarji Desai
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act, 1951, under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, to protect land reform laws from judicial review.
Consider the following statements:
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: coal mines were nationalised in 1971–73 under Indira Gandhi.
Statement 2 is incorrect: since 2015 coal blocks are allocated by auction (and allotment to government companies), not by lottery.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India still imports large amounts of coal, especially coking coal.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 lists offices whose holders are not disqualified as holding an 'office of profit'.
Statement 2 is accepted as correct by the official key: the Act has been amended several times (the count of five is debated).
Statement 3 is incorrect: the Constitution does not define 'office of profit'; courts have laid down the tests.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
- (a) Third Schedule
- (b) Fifth Schedule
- (c) Ninth Schedule
- (d) Twelfth Schedule
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Fifth Schedule
The Fifth Schedule governs Scheduled Areas; in Samatha (1997) the Supreme Court held that transfer of tribal land in Scheduled Areas to private parties for mining is null and void.
Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 2, 3 and 4
- (c) 1, 2 and 4
- (d) 1, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4
Statement 1 is correct: the 75 PVTGs live in 18 States and one Union Territory (Andaman and Nicobar Islands).
Statement 2 is correct: a stagnant or declining population is one criterion, along with pre-agricultural technology, extremely low literacy and a subsistence economy.
Statement 3 is incorrect: 75 PVTGs are notified, not 95.
Statement 4 is correct: the Irular (Tamil Nadu) and Konda Reddi (Andhra Pradesh) are PVTGs.
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
- (a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
- (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
- (c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
- (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
Article 142 lets the Supreme Court pass any decree or order needed for 'complete justice'; the Court has held that limits in ordinary laws do not restrict this constitutional power.
So the Supreme Court is not constrained by laws made by Parliament when exercising it.
With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Statement 1 is correct: under Article 176 the Governor addresses the Legislature at the start of the first session each year.
Statement 2 is accepted as correct in the official key: where a State Legislature's rules are silent, it follows Lok Sabha practice.
Consider the following statements:
1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 2 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2 and 4 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants supplements UNTOC, not UNCAC.
Statement 2 is correct: UNCAC (2003) is the first legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument.
Statement 3 is incorrect: the chapter on returning stolen assets (asset recovery) is a highlight of UNCAC, not UNTOC.
Statement 4 is correct: UNODC is the custodian of both conventions and helps States implement them.
Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the 2017 amendment to the Indian Forest Act removed bamboo grown outside forest areas from the definition of 'tree'; it gave no right to fell bamboo in forest areas.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: the Forest Rights Act, 2006 lists bamboo as minor forest produce and gives forest dwellers ownership of minor forest produce.
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?
- (a) Article 19
- (b) Article 21
- (c) Article 25
- (d) Article 29
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Article 21
The Supreme Court (Shafin Jahan/Hadiya case, 2018, and Shakti Vahini, 2018) held that the right to marry a person of one's choice is part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.
(The English source listed Article 25 twice; option (b) is Article 21 as in the Hindi booklet.)
Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Section 3(j) of the Patents Act excludes plants, seeds and essentially biological processes for producing them.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India had an Intellectual Property Appellate Board (2003–2021) when the question was set.
Statement 3 is correct: plant varieties cannot be patented; they are protected under the PPV&FR Act, 2001.
Consider the following statements:
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 2 is correct: Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the Centre to lay down standards for emission or discharge of pollutants.
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Act itself does not provide for public participation; public hearings come from the EIA notification issued under it.
As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
- (b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
- (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
- (d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 give detailed criteria for selecting landfill sites and siting waste processing facilities, so (c) is correct.
Waste is segregated into three streams (wet, dry, domestic hazardous), the Rules apply beyond urban local bodies (to census towns, SEZs, railways, airports and more), and there is no ban on moving waste between districts.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Consider the following statements:
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the 2018 amendment allowed fixed-term employment in all sectors, so a fixed-term worker's job simply ends with the contract, making it easier to lay off workers; and it says no notice of termination is needed for a temporary workman.
The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
- (a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
- (b) Lead Bank Scheme
- (c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
- (d) National Skill Development Mission
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Lead Bank Scheme
The Service Area Approach (1989) assigned each rural bank branch a cluster of villages for planned lending; it was introduced under the Lead Bank Scheme.
With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: sand used for ordinary building purposes is a minor mineral under the MMDR Act, 1957.
Statement 2 is incorrect: under Section 15 of the MMDR Act, State Governments make the rules for granting minor mineral concessions.
Statement 3 is correct: Section 23C lets States frame rules to prevent illegal mining.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Consider the following statements:
1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: most of India's external debt is non-sovereign (commercial borrowings, NRI deposits, short-term trade credit); sovereign debt is under a fifth.
Statement 2 is incorrect: about half is in US dollars, the rest in rupees, yen, SDR, euro and other currencies.
Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
- (a) Advances
- (b) Deposits
- (c) Investments
- (d) Money at call and short notice
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Deposits
Deposits are a bank's liabilities (money it owes to depositors).
Advances, investments and money at call and short notice are assets.
In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 3 only
- (c) 2 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
IT sector foreign exchange earnings and remittances from Indians abroad bring in foreign currency and cut the current account deficit, reducing currency-crisis risk.
Higher government expenditure can widen deficits and raise the risk.
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
- (a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
- (b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
- (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
- (d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
The Sarkaria Commission (1983) recommended that the Governor be an eminent person from outside the State, a detached figure not too closely tied to local politics, who has not been active in politics in the recent past.
Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
- (a) Certificate of Deposit
- (b) Commercial Paper
- (c) Promissory Note
- (d) Participatory Note
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Participatory Note
Participatory notes (P-notes) are offshore derivative instruments issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want exposure to Indian securities without registering with SEBI.
Consider the following statements:
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 sets up a National Authority and State Authorities (CAMPA).
Statement 2 is incorrect: the Act does not make people's participation mandatory in compensatory afforestation.
In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 1, 3 and 4
- (c) 3, 4 and 5
- (d) 2 and 5
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2
Independent regulators are reviewed by Parliament through ad hoc committees and the Department-Related Standing Committees.
The Finance Commission, the FSLRC (which made recommendations, not ongoing reviews) and NITI Aayog do not review them.
With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Second Plan (Mahalanobis model) pushed basic and capital goods industries to substitute imports.
Statement 2 is correct: the Fourth Plan aimed to correct the concentration of wealth and economic power (bank nationalisation, MRTP Act).
Statement 3 is incorrect: the financial sector was not first made an integral part of the Plan in the Fifth Plan.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: AIIB had over 90 approved members by 2019.
Statement 2 is incorrect: China is the largest shareholder; India is second.
Statement 3 is incorrect: AIIB has many non-Asian members, such as the UK, Germany, France and Egypt.
What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
- (a) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
- (b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
- (c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of ₹ 50 crore or more
- (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of ₹ 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of ₹ 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
The Inter-Creditor Agreement (2018, under Project Sashakt) let lenders in a consortium agree on a lead lender and a resolution plan, for faster resolution of stressed loans of ₹50 crore or more.
The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
- (a) Banks Board Bureau
- (b) Reserve Bank of India
- (c) Union Ministry of Finance
- (d) Management of concerned bank
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Banks Board Bureau
The Banks Board Bureau (2016) selects and recommends the heads (chairmen, MDs) of public sector banks and financial institutions; the Government makes the final appointment.
Consider the following statements:
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: PNGRB (2006) was not India's first regulator; SEBI, TRAI and electricity regulators came earlier.
Statement 2 is correct: PNGRB promotes competitive markets in gas.
Statement 3 is correct: appeals against PNGRB go to the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity.
With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct: LTE is marketed as 4G, not 3G; and LTE is a data network, while VoLTE carries voice calls as data over that LTE network, so VoLTE is not 'voice-only'.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the 2017 amendment gives 26 weeks of paid leave, of which up to 8 weeks may be before delivery.
Statement 2 is incorrect: establishments with crèches must allow four visits a day.
Statement 3 is correct: women with two or more children get 12 weeks instead of 26.
Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?
- (a) Maintenance of law and order
- (b) Paying taxes
- (c) Registering property
- (d) Dealing with construction permits
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Maintenance of law and order
The Ease of Doing Business index had ten indicators, including paying taxes, registering property and dealing with construction permits.
Maintenance of law and order was not one of them.
In India, 'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
- (a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
- (b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
- (c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
- (d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
Extended producer responsibility (EPR), which makes producers responsible for collecting and managing their products at end of life, was first introduced in India by the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011.
The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
- (a) transportation cost only
- (b) interest cost only
- (c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
- (d) procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
FCI's economic cost = MSP (plus any bonus) + procurement incidentals (mandi charges, taxes, gunny bags, storage before dispatch) + distribution cost (freight, handling, storage and transit losses).
In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
- (a) The proportion of literates in the population
- (b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
- (c) The size of population in the working age group
- (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Social capital is the networks, norms, mutual trust and cooperation in a society.
Literacy is human capital, buildings and machines are physical capital, and working-age population is a demographic measure.
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: High Courts can declare central laws unconstitutional under Article 226.
Statement 2 is incorrect: under the basic structure doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973), the Supreme Court can strike down constitutional amendments.
Consider the following statements:
1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: PPP rates compare what the same basket of goods and services costs in different countries.
Statement 2 is incorrect: by PPP India is the third largest economy, after China and the USA.
With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 2 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: rice has the largest kharif area.
Statement 2 is incorrect: kharif oilseeds (soybean, groundnut) cover far more area than jowar.
Statement 3 is correct: cotton (about 12 million ha) covers far more than sugarcane (about 5 million ha).
Statement 4 is incorrect: sugarcane area has fluctuated rather than steadily declined.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
- (a) Spices
- (b) Fresh fruits
- (c) Pulses
- (d) Vegetable oils
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Vegetable oils
Vegetable (edible) oils, mainly palm, soybean and sunflower oil, are India's largest agricultural import by value, well ahead of pulses, fresh fruits and spices.
In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
- (a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
- (b) Absence of restraint
- (c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
- (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
In political theory, liberty in its positive sense means the opportunity to develop oneself fully; mere absence of restraint or doing whatever one likes is not liberty.
Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
- (a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
- (b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
- (c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
- (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
An expansionary monetary policy lowers interest rates and adds rupee liquidity, which would weaken the rupee further.
Curbing non-essential imports, encouraging Masala Bonds and easing ECB rules all bring in or save foreign exchange and support the rupee.
Consider the following statements: The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: RBI's April 2018 directive requires all payment system data to be stored only in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: there is no requirement of public-sector ownership.
Statement 3 is incorrect: the system audit report goes to the RBI, not the CAG.
Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
- (a) Australia
- (b) Canada
- (c) The European Union
- (d) The United States of America
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) The European Union
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) was adopted by the European Union in April 2016 and has applied since 25 May 2018.
Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?
- (a) Japan
- (b) Russia
- (c) The United Kingdom
- (d) The United States of America
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Russia
India and Russia signed the 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' in October 2018, during President Putin's visit.
The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
- (a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
- (b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
- (c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
- (d) Increase in the population of the country
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
When more people keep money in banks (a stronger banking habit), less leaks out as cash, so banks can create more credit and the money multiplier rises.
Higher CRR or SLR reduces it; population size alone does not raise it.
In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 and 4
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) 4 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 3 and 4
Statements 1 and 2 swap the definitions, so both are wrong.
Statement 3 is correct: AR overlays digital content on the real world, often through a phone or PC camera.
Statement 4 is correct: VR shuts out the real world and gives full immersion.
The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
- (a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
- (b) an early human species
- (c) a cave system found in North-East India
- (d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) an early human species
Denisovans were an archaic human species, related to Neanderthals, first identified from DNA in a finger bone from Denisova Cave, Siberia; some modern Asians and Oceanians carry Denisovan genes.
With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
- (b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
- (c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
- (d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
Statement (a) is the one taken as not correct: functional chromosomes cannot simply be built by joining DNA segments from cells of different species.
Artificial functional DNA can be synthesised, DNA can be replicated outside cells (PCR), and plant and animal cells divide in culture dishes.
Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is
1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 3 only
A digital signature is an electronic method of signing a document that verifies the signer and shows that the content has not been altered (statement 3).
Identifying the certifying authority and proving identity online are functions of a digital certificate, so the official key takes 3 only.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Wearables can do all three: GPS smartwatches and trackers locate a person, fitness bands monitor sleep, and hearing aids and similar devices assist people with hearing impairment.
'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a) 1, 2 and 4
- (b) 2 and 3
- (c) 1 and 3
- (d) 1 and 4 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4
RNAi silences specific genes, so it is used for gene-silencing therapies, for cancer treatments that switch off cancer genes, and for crops resistant to viruses.
It does not produce hormones, so it is not used for hormone replacement therapy.
Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
- (a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.
- (b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.
- (c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.
- (d) It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.
LIGO's 2015 detection of two black holes merging over a billion light-years away was the first direct detection of gravitational waves.
Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1, 3 and 4
- (d) 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Multi-drug resistance in India is driven mainly by misuse of antibiotics, such as incorrect doses and incomplete courses, and by heavy antibiotic use in livestock and poultry.
Genetic predisposition of patients and multiple chronic diseases are not causes of resistance in microbes.
What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
- (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
- (b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
- (c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
- (d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
Cas9 is the enzyme in the CRISPR-Cas9 system that cuts DNA at a site chosen by a guide RNA, the 'molecular scissors' used in targeted gene editing.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
- (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
- (c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
- (d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
Statement (b) is not correct: hepatitis B has an effective vaccine, while hepatitis C has none.
Hepatitis B spreads like HIV (blood, sexual contact, mother to child); far more people live with hepatitis B and C than with HIV; and both can remain without symptoms for years.
