All 100 questions from UPSC Civil Services (IAS) Prelims 2022, GS Paper I. Each question has the correct answer and an explanation of why it is right and the other options are not. Try each one first, then open “Show answer and explanation”.
Answers follow UPSC's official answer key (Series A). Where UPSC dropped a question, it is marked as dropped.
"Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?
- (a) Asian Development Bank
- (b) International Monetary Fund
- (c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
- (d) World Bank
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) International Monetary Fund
The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and the Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) are IMF emergency lending windows for members facing urgent balance-of-payments needs, for example after natural disasters or shocks like COVID-19.
The RCF lends at zero interest to low-income countries under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust; the RFI is open to all member countries.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: NEER is a weighted index of the rupee against a basket of currencies, and a rise means the rupee has appreciated.
Statement 2 is incorrect: a rise in REER means Indian goods have become relatively costlier, so trade competitiveness worsens.
Statement 3 is correct: REER adjusts NEER for relative inflation, so higher domestic inflation than abroad pushes REER up relative to NEER and widens the gap between them.
With reference to the "G20 Common Framework", consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Statement 1 is correct: the Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the DSSI was agreed by the G20 and endorsed by the Paris Club in November 2020.
Statement 2 is correct: it supports low-income countries with unsustainable debt, on a case-by-case basis, by bringing official creditors (including non-Paris Club creditors such as China) together.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: to fight high inflation the RBI sells government securities in open market operations to absorb liquidity; buying them would inject money.
Statement 2 is correct: when the rupee falls sharply, the RBI sells dollars from its reserves to support it.
Statement 3 is correct: lower interest rates in the US or EU push capital towards India; the inflow strengthens the rupee, and the RBI buys dollars to curb excess appreciation and build reserves.
With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)"?
1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: because investors are protected against inflation, they accept a lower real coupon, which reduces the government's borrowing cost.
Statement 2 is correct: the principal (and so the interest) is indexed to inflation, protecting investors from inflation uncertainty.
Statement 3 is incorrect: there is no special tax exemption; interest and capital gains on IIBs are taxable under the Income Tax Act.
With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: FDI policy allows 100% FDI only in the marketplace model of e-commerce; foreign-owned platforms cannot hold inventory and sell their own goods (the inventory model is barred).
Statement 2 is correct: since the 2018 Press Note 2, an entity in which the marketplace or its group has equity cannot sell on that platform, and no single vendor may account for more than 25% of the platform's sales.
Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?
1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
The real sector produces goods and services: agriculture (harvesting crops) and manufacturing (turning cotton into fabric) are real-sector activities.
Bank lending and issuing rupee-denominated (masala) bonds are financial-sector activities, so statements 3 and 4 do not belong to the real sector.
Which one of the following situations best reflects "Indirect Transfers" often talked about in media recently with reference to India?
- (a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
- (b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
- (c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
- (d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
An "indirect transfer" is the transfer of shares of a foreign company whose value is derived substantially from assets located in India, such as the Vodafone-Hutchison deal.
The 2012 retrospective amendment taxed such transfers; the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 withdrew the retrospective demands.
With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: buying new technology creates a long-term asset, so it is capital expenditure.
Statement 2 is incorrect: debt and equity are ways of raising money (sources of finance), not kinds of expenditure.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Statement 1 is correct: households' bank deposits, insurance, provident and small-savings funds are invested in government securities, so part of household financial savings finances government borrowing.
Statement 2 is correct: dated securities sold through auctions at market-related rates make up the largest share of the Centre's internal debt.
Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 1, 2 and 4
- (c) 3 and 4 only
- (d) 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4
Statement 1 is correct: the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 followed the H.N. Sanyal Committee (1961) report.
Statement 2 is correct: Articles 129 and 215 make the Supreme Court and High Courts courts of record with power to punish for their own contempt.
Statement 3 is incorrect: civil and criminal contempt are defined in the 1971 Act, not in the Constitution.
Statement 4 is correct: Parliament can legislate on contempt of court (Entry 77 of the Union List and Entry 14 of the Concurrent List).
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: under the Advocates Act, 1961 an advocate is an individual enrolled on a State Bar Council roll. A law firm as such is not an advocate, and the Act does not single out corporate lawyers or patent attorneys for exclusion.
Statement 2 is correct: the Bar Council of India lays down standards of legal education and recognises universities and law colleges whose degrees qualify for enrolment.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: under Article 368 an amendment bill can be introduced in either House without the President's prior recommendation.
Statement 2 is correct: since the 24th Amendment (1971), the President must give assent to a duly passed Constitution Amendment Bill.
Statement 3 is correct: each House must pass it by a special majority, and there is no joint sitting if they disagree.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Constitution does not classify ministers into ranks; the categories of Cabinet Minister, Minister of State (Independent Charge), Minister of State and Deputy Minister come from convention and practice.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 75(1A), added by the 91st Amendment (2003), caps the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, at 15% of the total members of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
1 is not exclusive: a proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both Houses within one month (Article 352).
2 is exclusive: the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)), so only the Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion.
3 is not exclusive: impeachment of the President (Article 61) needs both Houses; either House can bring the charge.
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Tenth Schedule lets a nominated member join a political party within six months of taking the seat; joining after six months leads to disqualification.
Statement 2 is correct: the Schedule sets no time limit for the Speaker or Chairman to decide a petition; the Supreme Court (Keisham Meghachandra Singh, 2020) has said it should normally be decided within three months, but that is not in the law.
Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: under Article 88 the Attorney General (not the Solicitor General) has the right to speak in and take part in proceedings of either House, without a vote; ministers also take part.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the Constitution sets no term and says nothing about resignation with the government; the AG holds office during the pleasure of the President, and resigning with a change of government is only a convention.
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: mandamus lies against public authorities, and against a private body only when it performs a public duty.
Statement 2 is incorrect: mandamus can issue against a government company, which is "State" under Article 12.
Statement 3 is correct: for quo warranto, which questions the right to hold a public office, any person may apply; the petitioner need not be personally aggrieved.
With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: participation of hospitals and health facilities in the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is voluntary.
Statement 2 is incorrect: creating an ABHA (health ID) is voluntary for citizens; nobody is required to join.
Statement 3 is correct: ABDM builds interoperable digital health records that patients can carry and share across the country.
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 1, 2 and 3
- (c) 3 and 4 only
- (d) 2 and 4 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: Rule 8 of the Lok Sabha Rules says the election of the Deputy Speaker is held on a date fixed by the Speaker.
Statement 2 is incorrect: there is no mandatory provision on the party of the Deputy Speaker; offering the post to the opposition is only a convention.
Statement 3 is correct: when presiding, the Deputy Speaker has the Speaker's powers and no appeal lies against the rulings.
Statement 4 is incorrect: there is no such established practice that the Speaker moves the motion and the Prime Minister seconds it; the motion is moved and seconded by members.
Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
- (a) Cotton
- (b) Rice
- (c) Sugarcane
- (d) Wheat
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Rice
Flooded paddy fields create anaerobic conditions in which microbes release methane, and heavy nitrogen fertiliser use releases nitrous oxide.
Rice is therefore the most important crop source of both gases.
"System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:
1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
The System of Rice Intensification uses young single seedlings at wide spacing, so it needs far less seed.
Alternate wetting and drying keeps the soil aerobic for part of the time, cutting methane emissions.
Less irrigation water means less pumping, so electricity use falls as well.
Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?
- (a) Lake Victoria
- (b) Lake Faguibine
- (c) Lake Oguta
- (d) Lake Volta
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Lake Faguibine
Lake Faguibine in northern Mali (near Timbuktu), once one of West Africa's largest lakes, has largely dried up since the 1970s droughts and is now mostly desert.
Lake Victoria is in East Africa, Lake Oguta is in Nigeria and Lake Volta (a reservoir in Ghana) still holds water.
Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?
- (a) Cauvery
- (b) Manjira
- (c) Pennar
- (d) Tungabhadra
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Pennar
Gandikota in Kadapa (YSR) district, Andhra Pradesh, is a gorge cut by the Pennar (Penna) river through the Erramala hills; it is often called the "Grand Canyon of India".
Consider the following pairs:
Peak - Mountains
1. Namcha Barwa - Garhwal Himalaya
2. Nanda Devi - Kumaon Himalaya
3. Nokrek - Sikkim Himalaya
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Pair 1 is wrong: Namcha Barwa is in the eastern (Assam/Arunachal) Himalaya, where the Brahmaputra takes its great bend.
Pair 2 is correct: Nanda Devi is in the Kumaon Himalaya of Uttarakhand.
Pair 3 is wrong: Nokrek is the highest peak of the Garo Hills in Meghalaya, not the Sikkim Himalaya.
The term "Levant" often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?
- (a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
- (b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
- (c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
- (d) The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
The Levant is the region along the eastern Mediterranean shore: roughly Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Palestine and Jordan, and sometimes Cyprus and southern Turkey.
Consider the following countries:
1. Azerbaijan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Tajikistan
4. Turkmenistan
5. Uzbekistan
Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?
- (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
- (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
Afghanistan borders three Central Asian states to its north: Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan.
Kyrgyzstan is separated by Tajikistan's Gorno-Badakhshan, and Azerbaijan lies west of the Caspian Sea.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
- (c) 3 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: monazite is a phosphate mineral of rare earth elements and contains thorium, India's future nuclear fuel.
Statement 3 is incorrect: it occurs in particular beach and inland placer sands (mainly Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh), not all along the coast.
Statement 4 is correct: as a source of thorium, a prescribed substance under the Atomic Energy Act, monazite may be processed and exported only by government entities such as IREL.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:
- (a) First half of the month of June
- (b) Second half of the month of June
- (c) First half of the month of July
- (d) Second half of the month of July
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Second half of the month of June
The summer solstice, when the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer, falls on 20–21 June, so the longest day in the northern hemisphere is in the second half of June.
Consider the following pairs:
Wetland/Lake - Location
1. Hokera Wetland - Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta Lake - Tamil Nadu
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one pair
- (b) Only two pairs
- (c) Only three pairs
- (d) All four pairs
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Pair 1 is wrong: Hokera (Hokersar) Wetland is near Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir.
Pair 2 is correct: Renuka Wetland is in Sirmaur, Himachal Pradesh.
Pair 3 is correct: Rudrasagar Lake is in Tripura.
Pair 4 is wrong: Sasthamkotta Lake, Kerala's largest freshwater lake, is in Kollam, Kerala.
Two pairs are correct.
Consider the following:
1. Aarogya Setu
2. CoWIN
3. DigiLocker
4. DIKSHA
Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four are part of India's open digital public infrastructure: Aarogya Setu's code was open-sourced in 2020, CoWIN was built on open-source components (and offered as the open-source DIVOC platform to other countries), and DigiLocker and DIKSHA (built on the open-source Sunbird platform) use open standards and open-source stacks.
With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:
1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.
3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Web 3.0 is the idea of a decentralised internet built on blockchains.
Users control their own data and identity, applications such as blockchain-based social networks can run without a central company, and networks are run collectively by users and token holders rather than one corporation.
All three statements are correct.
With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements:
1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.
2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Software as a Service delivers applications over the internet on subscription.
Buyers can usually configure the interface and data fields, users can reach their data from any device including mobiles, and web-mail services such as Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are classic SaaS examples.
All three statements are correct.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in media?
- (a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
- (b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
- (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
- (d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
A Fractional Orbital Bombardment System puts a warhead into a low Earth orbit and deorbits it over the target before completing a full orbit (hence "fractional").
It can approach from unexpected directions, such as over the South Pole, evading early-warning radars; it was in the news in 2021 after reports of a Chinese hypersonic test.
Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned?
- (a) Cloud Services
- (b) Quantum Computing
- (c) Visible Light Communication Technologies
- (d) Wireless Communication Technologies
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Quantum Computing
A qubit (quantum bit) is the basic unit of information in quantum computing.
Unlike a classical bit (0 or 1), it can exist in a superposition of both states and can be entangled with other qubits.
Consider the following communication technologies:
1. Closed-circuit Television
2. Radio Frequency Identification
3. Wireless Local Area Network
Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Short Range Devices are low-power radio transmitters that work over short distances, typically on licence-exempt bands.
RFID, Wi-Fi/WLAN and wireless CCTV video links all fall in the categories recognised as short-range devices, so all three are included in the official answer.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Consider the following statements:
1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Biofilms are communities of microbes stuck to a surface inside a self-made matrix.
They form on medical implants such as catheters and prosthetic joints, on food and food-processing equipment, and the protective matrix makes them far more resistant to antibiotics.
All three statements are correct.
Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:
1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3
- (d) 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 3
Statement 1 is correct: probiotics include bacteria (Lactobacillus, Bifidobacterium) and yeasts (Saccharomyces boulardii).
Statement 2 is incorrect: many probiotic organisms are normal residents of the human gut.
Statement 3 is correct: lactic-acid bacteria produce lactase and help digest lactose (milk sugar).
In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:
1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Covishield (the Oxford-AstraZeneca vaccine) uses a non-replicating chimpanzee adenovirus vector, not mRNA.
Statement 2 is correct: Sputnik V uses two human adenovirus vectors (Ad26 and Ad5).
Statement 3 is correct: Covaxin (Bharat Biotech) is a whole-virion inactivated vaccine.
If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?
1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
- (b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
- (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
A strong solar storm disturbs the ionosphere and magnetosphere: GPS and navigation can fail, induced currents can damage power grids, auroras spread to low latitudes, heating of the upper atmosphere increases drag and disturbs satellite orbits, and HF radio on polar flight routes is blacked out.
It does not cause tsunamis or forest fires, so 2 and 5 are wrong.
"Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:
- (a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
- (b) Wing of "International Panel of Climate Change"
- (c) Committee under "United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change"
- (d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis by two research organisations, Climate Analytics and the NewClimate Institute, tracking government climate action against the Paris Agreement goals.
It is not part of the IPCC or UNFCCC and is not a UNEP/World Bank agency.
Consider the following statements:
1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100".
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition".
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
- (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 2, 3 and 5 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Statement 1 is correct: The Climate Group is an international non-profit that runs large networks of businesses and governments (RE100, EP100, EV100, Under2 Coalition).
Statement 2 is incorrect: EP100 was launched by The Climate Group with the Alliance to Save Energy, not the IEA.
Statements 3 and 4 are correct: EP100 gathers companies committed to smarter energy use, and several Indian companies (e.g. Mahindra, Godrej, Tata Steel group firms) are members.
Statement 5 is incorrect: The Climate Group, not the IEA, is the secretariat of the Under2 Coalition.
"If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
- (a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
- (b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
- (c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
- (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
Kidneys filter waste from the blood; wetlands likewise filter water by trapping sediments and letting aquatic plants and microbes absorb excess nutrients and heavy metals.
This purification role is why wetlands are called the "kidneys of the landscape".
In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1, 3 and 4
- (b) 1 and 4 only
- (c) 2, 3 and 4
- (d) 1 and 2 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 1 and 4 only
Statement 1 is correct: the 2021 WHO guidelines set PM2.5 at 15 µg/m³ (24-hour mean) and 5 µg/m³ (annual mean).
Statement 2 is incorrect: ground-level ozone forms photochemically and peaks during sunny, warm, settled weather, not inclement weather.
Statement 3 is incorrect: PM10 lodges in the airways; it is PM2.5 (and finer) that penetrates the lung barrier into the blood.
Statement 4 is correct: excess ozone irritates the airways and can trigger asthma.
With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 2
- (d) 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1 and 2
Gucchi is the morel mushroom (Morchella esculenta), a fungus that grows wild in Himalayan forests of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
It is collected from the wild and is among the costliest mushrooms; it is not commercially cultivated in the north-eastern foothills, so statement 3 is wrong.
With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:
1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3
- (b) 2 and 4
- (c) 1 and 4
- (d) 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 3
Statement 1 is correct: PET (polyester) fibre is blended with wool and cotton to improve strength and wrinkle resistance.
Statement 2 is incorrect: PET is not suitable for every alcoholic beverage, for example for long storage of wine or spirits, because of permeability and possible leaching.
Statement 3 is correct: PET bottles are widely recycled into fibre, sheets and new bottles.
Statement 4 is incorrect: incinerating PET releases carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas.
Which of the following is not a bird?
- (a) Golden Mahseer
- (b) Indian Nightjar
- (c) Spoonbill
- (d) White Ibis
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Golden Mahseer
The Golden Mahseer (Tor putitora) is a large freshwater fish of Himalayan rivers.
The Indian Nightjar, Spoonbill and White Ibis (black-headed ibis) are birds.
Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?
1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
- (c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
- (d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
Alfalfa, chickpea and clover are legumes; their root nodules host Rhizobium bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen.
Amaranth, purslane and spinach are not legumes and do not fix nitrogen.
"Biorock technology" is talked about in which one of the following situations?
- (a) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
- (b) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
- (c) Development of building materials using plant residues
- (d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
Biorock (mineral accretion) technology passes a low-voltage current through a steel frame in seawater, so limestone minerals deposit on it; corals attached to the frame grow faster.
It is used to restore damaged coral reefs, for example in the Gulf of Kachchh in India.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:
- (a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
- (b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
- (c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
- (d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
The Miyawaki method, developed by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, plants many native species very densely in small plots.
It creates fast-growing, self-sustaining mini forests and is popular in cities.
In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects?
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 2, 3 and 4
- (c) 1, 3 and 4
- (d) 1, 2 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4
Under dyarchy (Government of India Act, 1919), "reserved" subjects stayed with the Governor and his executive council; they included administration of justice, police, land revenue, irrigation and finance.
Local self-government was a "transferred" subject, run by ministers responsible to the legislature.
In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to:
- (a) Clothing
- (b) Coins
- (c) Ornaments
- (d) Weapons
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Coins
The fanam was a small gold (later also silver) coin used in South India, including under Vijayanagara and later the Dutch and English companies; foreign travellers mention it often.
Consider the following freedom fighters:
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose
Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 3 only
Rash Behari Bose worked with the Ghadar Party on the planned uprising of February 1915 and later founded the Indian Independence League in Japan.
Barindra Kumar Ghosh led the Anushilan/Jugantar group in Bengal (Alipore bomb case), and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was a founder of the Hindustan Republican Association; neither was a Ghadar Party activist.
With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: under the Cripps proposals (1942), the Constituent Assembly's British-Indian members would be elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation; only the princely states would nominate their members.
Statement 2 is correct: any province unwilling to accept the new constitution could stay out and make a separate agreement with Britain about its future status.
With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:
1. Nettipakarana
2. Parishishtaparvan
3. Avadanashataka
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana
Which of the above are Jaina texts?
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 2 and 4 only
- (c) 1, 3 and 4
- (d) 2, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
Parishishtaparvan (Hemachandra) and Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana (the Jain Mahapurana of Jinasena and Gunabhadra, on the 63 great personages) are Jaina texts.
Nettipakarana is a Pali Buddhist exegetical text and Avadanashataka is a Sanskrit Buddhist collection of avadana stories.
With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:
Historical person - Known as
1. Aryadeva - Jaina scholar
2. Dignaga - Buddhist scholar
3. Nathamuni - Vaishnava scholar
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) None of the pairs
- (b) Only one pair
- (c) Only two pairs
- (d) All three pairs
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Only two pairs
Pair 1 is wrong: Aryadeva was a Buddhist Madhyamaka philosopher, a disciple of Nagarjuna.
Pair 2 is correct: Dignaga was a Buddhist logician.
Pair 3 is correct: Nathamuni was a Sri Vaishnava acharya who compiled the Nalayira Divya Prabandham.
Two pairs are correct.
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the first Mongol appearance on India's frontier was under Chengiz Khan in 1221, during Iltutmish's reign.
Statement 2 is correct: in 1303 a Mongol army under Targhi besieged Delhi during Alauddin Khalji's reign.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Muhammad bin Tughlaq faced the Mongol raid of Tarmashirin (c. 1327) but is not generally held to have lost north-western territory to the Mongols.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as "Kulah-Daran"?
- (a) Arab merchants
- (b) Qalandars
- (c) Persian calligraphists
- (d) Sayyids
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Sayyids
In the Delhi Sultanate, the Sayyids (claimed descendants of the Prophet) were called "Kulah-Daran" ("wearers of the peaked cap"), from the distinctive cap they wore; they enjoyed special social status.
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Dutch reached the east coast in the early 17th century, long after Gajapati rule ended (c. 1541); Masulipatnam came from the Golconda Sultanate and Pulicat from the Vijayanagara (Chandragiri) rulers.
Statement 2 is correct: Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate in 1510.
Statement 3 is correct: in 1639 Francis Day obtained the Madras site from Damarla Venkatadri Nayaka, a local chief (nayaka) of the Vijayanagara (Aravidu) king.
According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?
1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master's son.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
The Arthashastra lists judicial punishment among the ways a person could become a dasa.
It also lays down that a female slave who bears her master's son becomes free, and that the son gets the legal status of the master's son.
All three statements are correct.
Consider the following statements:
1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: when the US Fed tightens, higher US yields pull capital out of emerging markets.
Statement 2 is correct: capital flight weakens the rupee, so firms with existing foreign-currency ECBs need more rupees to pay interest and principal.
Statement 3 is incorrect: devaluation of the domestic currency increases, not reduces, the currency risk of foreign-currency borrowing.
Consider the following States:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura
How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
- (a) Only one State
- (b) Only two States
- (c) Only three States
- (d) All four States
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Only three States
Kerala (Munnar, Wayanad), Himachal Pradesh (Kangra) and Tripura are recognised tea-producing states.
Andhra Pradesh is not generally known as a tea-producing state, so three of the four are.
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: credit rating agencies in India are regulated by SEBI under the SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999.
Statement 2 is correct: ICRA Limited is a public limited company listed on the stock exchanges.
Statement 3 is correct: Brickwork Ratings is an Indian rating agency (SEBI cancelled its registration in October 2022).
With reference to the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)', which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Banks Board Bureau (2016) is chaired by an eminent professional or official appointed by the government, not the RBI Governor.
Statement 2 is correct: it recommends whole-time directors and heads of public sector banks and financial institutions.
Statement 3 is correct: it was also tasked with helping public sector banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. (It was replaced by FSIB in 2022.)
With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:
1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Statement 1 is correct: because the holder gets the option to convert into equity, convertible bonds carry a lower coupon than similar plain bonds.
Statement 2 is correct: equity values tend to rise with inflation over time, so the conversion option gives the holder some protection against rising prices, unlike a fixed coupon.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Consider the following:
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
India is a member of which of the above?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
India is a founding member of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (2016, its second-largest shareholder), joined the Missile Technology Control Regime in 2016 and became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation in 2017.
Consider the following statements:
1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in recent years.
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
4. For a long time Vietnam's low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 2 and 4
- (b) 3 and 5
- (c) 1, 3 and 4
- (d) 1 and 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct: Vietnam has been one of the fastest-growing economies, driven by export-led integration into global supply chains, low labour costs and a stable, managed exchange rate.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Vietnam is a one-party state led by the Communist Party of Vietnam.
Statement 5 is not supported: Vietnam is not recognised as having the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific.
In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
- (a) Department of Consumer Affairs
- (b) Expenditure Management Commission
- (c) Financial Stability and Development Council
- (d) Reserve Bank of India
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Reserve Bank of India
Under the amended RBI Act, 1934 (2016), the RBI conducts monetary policy with the primary objective of price stability, through flexible inflation targeting (4% CPI inflation, band 2–6%) set by the Monetary Policy Committee.
With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:
1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: NFTs can represent ownership of digital or physical assets such as art, collectibles or property.
Statement 2 is correct: each NFT is a unique cryptographic token recorded on a blockchain.
Statement 3 is incorrect: being non-fungible, NFTs are not interchangeable at equivalency, so they cannot work as a medium of exchange the way cryptocurrencies or money can.
Consider the following pairs:
Reservoirs - States
1. Ghataprabha - Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar - Madhya Pradesh
3. Indira Sagar - Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon - Chhattisgarh
How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?
- (a) Only one pair
- (b) Only two pairs
- (c) Only three pairs
- (d) All four pairs
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Only three pairs
Pair 1 is wrong: Ghataprabha reservoir is in Karnataka (Belagavi).
Pair 2 is correct: Gandhi Sagar is on the Chambal in Madhya Pradesh.
Pair 3 is wrong: Indira Sagar is on the Narmada in Madhya Pradesh (Khandwa).
Pair 4 is wrong: Maithon is on the Barakar in Jharkhand.
Three pairs are not correctly matched.
In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?
- (a) Central Statistics Office
- (b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
- (c) Labour Bureau
- (d) National Technical Manpower Information System
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Labour Bureau
The Labour Bureau (Ministry of Labour and Employment) compiles statistics on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs, along with consumer price indices for workers.
In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)?
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 3 and 4 only
- (c) 1 and 2 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
The Coal Controller's Organisation (Ministry of Coal) is the main source of coal statistics, monitors development of captive coal and lignite blocks, and hears objections under the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957.
Ensuring timely delivery of coal to end users is not its role, so statement 4 is wrong.
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
- (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
- (b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
- (c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
- (d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
Under the Fifth Schedule, the Governor may make regulations for a Scheduled Area that prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among tribal people, which in practice bars transfer of tribal land to non-tribals.
It does not create autonomous councils (that is the Sixth Schedule), does not make the area a Union Territory and does not confer special category status.
Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the India Sanitation Coalition was launched in 2015 at FICCI as a multi-stakeholder platform; it is not funded by the Government of India and WHO.
Statement 2 is correct: the National Institute of Urban Affairs is the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs' premier institute for research and innovative solutions on urban challenges.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
- (a) Central Water Commission
- (b) Central Ground Water Board
- (c) Central Ground Water Authority
- (d) National Water Development Agency
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Central Ground Water Authority
The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted in 1997 under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate groundwater development.
The Central Water Commission and Central Ground Water Board are technical bodies created by government resolution, and NWDA is a registered society.
With reference to the "United Nations Credentials Committee", consider the following statements:
1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 3 only
- (b) 1 and 3
- (c) 2 and 3
- (d) 1 and 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Credentials Committee is appointed by the UN General Assembly at the start of each regular session, not by the Security Council.
Statement 2 is incorrect: it meets during the General Assembly session (usually in the autumn), not in March, June and September.
Statement 3 is correct: its nine members examine the credentials of member states' representatives and report to the General Assembly for approval.
Which one of the following statements best describes the 'Polar Code'?
- (a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
- (b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
- (c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
- (d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
The International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (Polar Code) of the International Maritime Organization, in force since 2017, sets safety and pollution-prevention rules for ships in Arctic and Antarctic waters.
With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:
1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: the General Assembly grants observer status to non-member states (e.g. Holy See, Palestine) and to intergovernmental organisations (e.g. the African Union, the EU), and permanent observers may keep missions at UN Headquarters in New York.
With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3
- (b) 2 and 4
- (c) 3 and 4
- (d) 1 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1 and 4
Statement 1 is correct: the Tea Board is a statutory body under the Tea Act, 1953.
Statement 2 is incorrect: it works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Statement 3 is incorrect: its head office is in Kolkata.
Statement 4 is correct: it has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow.
Which one of the following best describes the term "greenwashing"?
- (a) Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
- (b) Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
- (c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
- (d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
Greenwashing means making misleading or unsubstantiated claims that a company's products, services or practices are environmentally friendly, to win customers or investors.
Consider the following statements:
1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth's surface and thus cause warming effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: thin high clouds let sunlight through but trap outgoing infrared radiation, so on balance they warm the surface.
Statement 2 is incorrect: low, thick clouds mainly reflect sunlight back to space and so cool the surface.
Consider the following statements:
1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2 and 3
Statement 1 is incorrect: Bidibidi, one of the world's largest refugee settlements, is in Yumbe district of north-western Uganda, not Kenya.
Statement 2 is correct: it mainly hosts refugees from South Sudan's civil war.
Statement 3 is correct: the Dadaab complex in Kenya houses refugees who fled Somalia's civil war.
Consider the following countries:
1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan
3. Croatia
4. Romania
5. Uzbekistan
Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?
- (a) 1, 2 and 4
- (b) 1 and 3
- (c) 2 and 5
- (d) 3, 4 and 5
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) 2 and 5
Members of the Organization of Turkic States are Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Turkey and Uzbekistan (Hungary, Turkmenistan and Northern Cyprus are observers).
Armenia, Croatia and Romania are not members.
Consider the following statements:
1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: in 2022 India's largest solar park was Bhadla in Rajasthan.
Statement 2 is correct: Cochin International Airport in Kerala became the world's first fully solar-powered airport in 2015.
Statement 3 is incorrect: the largest floating solar project then was at NTPC Ramagundam in Telangana, not Goa.
With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:
1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
All three follow UNCLOS: Article 3 lets a coastal state fix a territorial sea of up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline, Article 17 gives ships of all states, coastal or land-locked, the right of innocent passage, and Article 57 limits the EEZ to 200 nautical miles from the baseline.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?
- (a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
- (b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
- (c) A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
- (d) Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man's land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
The Senkaku Islands (Diaoyu in China) are uninhabited islands in the East China Sea administered by Japan and claimed by China (and Taiwan); they are a long-running source of maritime tension between China and Japan.
Consider the following pairs:
Country - Important reason for being in the news recently
1. Chad - Setting up of permanent military base by China
2. Guinea - Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
3. Lebanon - Severe and prolonged economic depression
4. Tunisia - Suspension of Parliament by President
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one pair
- (b) Only two pairs
- (c) Only three pairs
- (d) All four pairs
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (c) Only three pairs
Pair 1 is wrong: Chad was in the news for the death of President Idriss Déby (2021) and military rule; China has not set up a base there (its only overseas base is in Djibouti).
Pair 2 is correct: Guinea's military suspended the constitution and dissolved the government in September 2021.
Pair 3 is correct: the World Bank called Lebanon's crisis one of the worst economic depressions in modern times.
Pair 4 is correct: Tunisia's President Kais Saied suspended Parliament in July 2021.
Three pairs are correct.
Consider the following pairs:
Region often mentioned in the news - Country
1. Anatolia - Turkey
2. Amhara - Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado - Spain
4. Catalonia - Italy
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one pair
- (b) Only two pairs
- (c) Only three pairs
- (d) All four pairs
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Pair 1 is correct: Anatolia is the Asian part of Turkey.
Pair 2 is correct: Amhara is a region of Ethiopia, in the news during the Tigray war.
Pair 3 is wrong: Cabo Delgado, scene of an Islamist insurgency, is a province of Mozambique.
Pair 4 is wrong: Catalonia, with its independence movement, is in Spain.
Two pairs are correct.
With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2
Statement 1 is treated as correct: under Section 39 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, wild animals that are hunted, killed or found dead, and their parts, are the property of the government.
Statement 2 is correct: a scheduled animal is equally protected inside and outside protected areas.
Statement 3 is incorrect: under Section 11 an animal can be captured or killed only if it has become dangerous to human life and the Chief Wildlife Warden records reasons; mere apprehension is not enough.
This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.
Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
- (a) Ant
- (b) Cockroach
- (c) Crab
- (d) Spider
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Ant
Leaf-cutter ants (Atta, Acromyrmex) and other attine ants grow fungus gardens on leaf fragments and feed on the fungus, an example of agriculture by insects (termites and some beetles do this too).
Consider the following pairs:
Site of Ashoka's major rock edicts - Location in the State of
1. Dhauli - Odisha
2. Erragudi - Andhra Pradesh
3. Jaugada - Madhya Pradesh
4. Kalsi - Karnataka
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one pair
- (b) Only two pairs
- (c) Only three pairs
- (d) All four pairs
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Pair 1 is correct: Dhauli is near Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
Pair 2 is correct: Erragudi is in Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh.
Pair 3 is wrong: Jaugada is in Ganjam district, Odisha.
Pair 4 is wrong: Kalsi is in Dehradun district, Uttarakhand.
Two pairs are correct.
Consider the following pairs:
King - Dynasty
1. Nannuka - Chandela
2. Jayashakti - Paramara
3. Nagabhata II - Gurjara-Pratihara
4. Bhoja - Rashtrakuta
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) Only one pair
- (b) Only two pairs
- (c) Only three pairs
- (d) All four pairs
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Pair 1 is correct: Nannuka founded the Chandela dynasty.
Pair 2 is wrong: Jayashakti (Jejja) was also a Chandela ruler, after whom Bundelkhand was called Jejakabhukti.
Pair 3 is correct: Nagabhata II was a Gurjara-Pratihara king.
Pair 4 is wrong: Bhoja belongs to the Gurjara-Pratiharas (Mihira Bhoja) or the Paramaras (Raja Bhoja), not the Rashtrakutas.
Two pairs are correct.
Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?
- (a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
- (b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
- (c) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
- (d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
Sangam poets knew the Varna classification, and Brahmanas appear in the poems, though Tamil society was organised differently (by tinai landscapes and occupational groups).
The poems are rich in references to material culture and warrior ethics (puram poetry), and they treat magical and supernatural forces as real, not irrational.
"Yogavasishtha" was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:
- (a) Akbar
- (b) Humayun
- (c) Shahjahan
- (d) Aurangzeb
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) Akbar
Nizamuddin Panipati translated the Yoga Vasishtha into Persian in Akbar's reign (c. 1597), under the patronage of Prince Salim; Akbar's translation bureau (maktab khana) rendered many Sanskrit works into Persian.
The world's second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?
- (a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
- (b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
- (c) Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
- (d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
Ramanuja (Vishishtadvaita) taught that the best path to salvation is bhakti, loving devotion and surrender (prapatti) to Vishnu.
The "Statue of Equality" at Hyderabad, inaugurated in February 2022, honours him.
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?
1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is correct: Somnath (Prabhas Patan, Gujarat) is the first of the twelve Jyotirlingas.
Statement 2 is correct: Al-Biruni described the Somnath temple and Mahmud of Ghazni's raid (1025).
Statement 3 is incorrect: the pran pratishtha of the present temple in 1951 was performed by President Rajendra Prasad.
Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
- (a) They protect the body from environmental allergens.
- (b) They alleviate the body's pain and inflammation.
- (c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
- (d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
B cells (which make antibodies) and T cells (which kill infected cells and coordinate the response) are lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system.
Their role is to protect the body against diseases caused by pathogens.
Consider the following statements:
1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 2
- (d) 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 2 and 3
Statement 1 is incorrect: nanoparticles occur naturally, for example in volcanic ash, sea spray, smoke and mineral dust.
Statement 2 is correct: nanoparticles of zinc oxide and titanium dioxide are used in sunscreens and cosmetics.
Statement 3 is correct: some engineered nanoparticles released into the environment can be toxic to humans.
Consider the following statements:
DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:
1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
2. distinguish among species that look alike.
3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 2
- (d) 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (d) 2 and 3
DNA barcoding identifies species from a short standard gene sequence (such as COI in animals).
It can tell apart species that look alike and detect undeclared or adulterant animal or plant material in processed food.
It cannot tell the age of an organism, so statement 1 is wrong.
Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 2 and 4 only
- (c) 4 only
- (d) 1, 3 and 4
Show answer and explanation
Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
Acid rain forms when sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides react with water vapour to form sulphuric and nitric acids.
Carbon monoxide and ozone are pollutants but do not cause acid rain.
