UPSC Prelims Polity PYQs (2016–2025) with Answers & Explanations

Answer: (a) Only one

Row I is incorrect: the Enforcement Directorate does enforce the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it is under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Row II is correct: the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence enforces the Customs Act and is under the Department of Revenue.

The official key treats row III as incorrect too, so only one row is correctly matched.

This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.

Answer: (c) I and III only

Statement I is correct: an ordinance has the same force as an Act of Parliament, so it can amend or repeal a Central Act.

Statement II is incorrect: under Article 13, 'law' includes ordinances, so an ordinance cannot abridge Fundamental Rights.

Statement III is correct: an ordinance can be given retrospective effect.

Answer: (a) Only one

Only the Inter-State Council has a constitutional basis: Article 263 empowers the President to set it up, and it was constituted in 1990. The National Security Council is an executive body (1998), and Zonal Councils are statutory bodies under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

Answer: (a) I only

Statement I is correct: the Constitution explicitly gives the Governor discretion in certain matters, for example Article 163(1), the Sixth Schedule and Articles 371A and 371H.

Statement II is incorrect: under Article 200, only the Governor can reserve a State Bill for the President's consideration. The President cannot do so on their own.

Answer: (c) All the three

All three are correctly matched. Separation of the judiciary from the executive is Article 50 (Directive Principles). Valuing and preserving our composite culture is Article 51A(f) (Fundamental Duties). The ban on employing children under 14 in factories is Article 24 (Fundamental Rights).

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Neither is correct. Under the Fifth Schedule, the State's executive power continues in Scheduled Areas; the Governor has special powers and a Tribes Advisory Council advises. The Union can give directions to the State on their administration, but it does not take over their total administration.

Answer: (d) None

None is correctly matched. The National Automotive Board is under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, the Coir Board under the Ministry of MSME, and the National Centre for Trade Information under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Answer: (a) I and II only

Under the proviso to Article 368(2), amendments affecting the Seventh Schedule lists (I) and the extent of the executive power of the Union and the States (II) need ratification by at least half the State legislatures. The conditions of the Governor's office (Article 158) can be amended without State ratification.

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three are correct. Under Article 361, the Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise of the powers and duties of office, and no criminal proceedings may be instituted or continued against the Governor during the term. Under Article 194(2), State legislators are immune from court proceedings for anything said in the House.

Answer: (a) I only

Statement I is correct: the President's pardoning power under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review, for example if a decision is arbitrary, mala fide or made without application of mind (Epuru Sudhakar, 2006).

Statement II is incorrect: the President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Maru Ram, 1980).

Answer: (c) I and III only

Statement I is correct: under Article 94, the Speaker does not vacate office on dissolution until immediately before the first meeting of the new House.

Statement II is incorrect: the Constitution does not require the Speaker to resign from their political party.

Statement III is correct: the Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members, after at least 14 days' notice.

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Statement I is incorrect: under the Tenth Schedule, disqualification for defection is decided by the Speaker or Chairman, not the President. (The President's decision on the Election Commission's opinion applies to other disqualifications under Article 103.)

Statement II is incorrect: the term 'political party' appears in the Tenth Schedule.

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Statement I is incorrect: under Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957, State Governments make the rules for granting concessions for minor minerals, and they collect the royalties.

Statement II is correct: the Central Government has the power to notify minerals as 'minor minerals' (Section 3(e)).

Answer: (d) I, II and III

The question asks which statements are NOT correct, and all three are incorrect.

Statement I: intermediate-level panchayats need not exist in States with a population under 20 lakh (Article 243B).

Statement II: the minimum age for panchayat membership is 21 years, not 30 (Article 243F).

Statement III: the Governor, not the Chief Minister, constitutes the State Finance Commission (Article 243I).

Answer: (a) III only

Only statement III is correct: the Chairperson and Members must be at least 45 years old.

Statement I is incorrect: the Lokpal's jurisdiction also covers Indian public servants posted abroad.

Statement II is incorrect: the Chairperson may be a former Chief Justice of India, a former Supreme Court judge, or an eminent person, not only a CJI.

Statement IV is incorrect: the Lokpal can inquire into allegations against the Prime Minister, with special safeguards.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Article 368(1) empowers Parliament to amend 'by way of addition, variation or repeal' any provision of the Constitution, subject to the basic structure doctrine.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Article 109 lays down the special procedure for Money Bills.

Statement 2 is correct: a Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 3 is correct: the Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill. It can only recommend changes within 14 days.

Statement 4 is incorrect: the Lok Sabha may accept or reject those recommendations.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

After the 2002 amendment of the NEC Act, the Council comprises the Governors and Chief Ministers of the eight North-Eastern States and three members nominated by the President. The Union Home Minister is not a member under the Act. Since 2018 the Home Minister has served as ex-officio Chairman by a Cabinet decision.

This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.

Answer: (d) Four

Four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted: in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002, under the Delimitation Commission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

The 71st Amendment (1992) added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule. Maithili, along with Bodo, Dogri and Santhali, was added by the 92nd Amendment (2003).

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

All three are correct: Municipalities are in Part IXA (74th Amendment), Emergency provisions in Part XVIII (Articles 352–360), and amendment of the Constitution in Part XX (Article 368).

Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

Inter-State quarantine (including seaports and airports) is a Union subject (Entry 81, Union List, along with inter-State migration). Inter-State trade and commerce (Entry 42) and corporation tax (Entry 85) are also Union subjects. So option (c) is the only correct one.

Answer: (d) Article 21

In Justice K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge bench held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right, intrinsic to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and also part of the freedoms in Part III.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct: the Lok Sabha Ethics Committee began as an ad hoc committee (2000) and became permanent in 2015.

Statement 2 is incorrect: complaints can also come from any person through a Lok Sabha member, not only from members.

Statement 3 is correct: it cannot take up sub-judice matters.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the reservation takes effect after delimitation based on the first census conducted after the Act's commencement, not from the 18th Lok Sabha.

Statement 2 is correct: it will remain in force for 15 years, extendable by Parliament.

Statement 3 is correct: one-third of the SC and ST reserved seats are reserved for women of those groups.

Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

A writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal, forbidding it from continuing proceedings that exceed its jurisdiction. It is preventive, while certiorari quashes an order already passed.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: under Article 342, the President, after consulting the Governor, notifies Scheduled Tribes for each State, and Parliament can modify the list.

Statement 2 is correct: ST status is State-specific, so a community that is an ST in one State may not be in another.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Under Article 112, the President causes the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before both Houses, and in practice the Finance Minister presents it. Under Article 113(3), no demand for a grant can be made except on the President's recommendation. The official key marks both statements correct. Note that statement 1's wording ('on behalf of the Prime Minister') differs from Article 112, which refers to the President.

This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Under Article 96, while a resolution for the Speaker's removal is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside, so statement 1 is correct. The Speaker does have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings, and is entitled to vote in the first instance (but not to a casting vote). So statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct: a bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses when it is dissolved.

Statement 2 is correct: a bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses.

Statement 3 is incorrect: under Article 108(5), a bill for which the President has notified a joint sitting does not lapse.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Statement 1 is incorrect: the President prorogues the Houses on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Statement 2 is correct: prorogation usually follows adjournment sine die, but a House in session can also be prorogued.

Statement 3 is correct: the President dissolves the Lok Sabha, ordinarily on the Council of Ministers' advice.

Answer: (b) Only three

The Fifteenth Finance Commission used six criteria: income distance (45%), population (15%), area (15%), forest and ecology (10%), demographic performance (12.5%) and tax and fiscal efforts (2.5%). Apart from population, area and income distance, three of the listed criteria were used. 'Governance reforms' and 'stable government' were not criteria.

Answer: (a) The principle of natural justice

'Due process of law' (from the US Constitution) requires that a law and the procedure under it be fair, just and reasonable, rooted in the principles of natural justice. By contrast, 'procedure established by law' (the original wording of Article 21) only requires a validly enacted procedure. In the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), the Supreme Court read due-process standards into Article 21.

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. 'Prisons' is a State subject (Entry 4, State List), so States run prisons under their own rules. The Prisons Act, 1894 placed prisons under the control of the provincial (now State) governments.

Answer: (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

The chief purpose of a constitution is to define and limit the powers of government (constitutionalism). It sets out what each organ may do and protects citizens' rights against the abuse of power.

UPSC dropped this question in the final answer key, so no option is marked correct.

For context: the First Amendment (1951) is usually cited as the amendment enacted to overcome judicial rulings on Fundamental Rights, such as Champakam Dorairajan and the zamindari abolition cases. It added Articles 31A and 31B and the Ninth Schedule.

Answer: (a) Only one

Only the National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body (Article 338B, added by the 102nd Amendment, 2018). The NHRC is statutory (Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993), the Law Commission is an executive body, and the NCDRC is statutory (Consumer Protection Act).

Answer: (d) None

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 71(2) says acts done by the President before the Supreme Court declares the election void are not invalidated.

Statement 2 is incorrect: the election cannot be postponed because some Assemblies are dissolved. Under Article 71(4), it cannot be challenged on the ground of vacancies in the electoral college.

Statement 3 is incorrect: the Constitution prescribes no time limit for the President to act on a Bill, which is why a 'pocket veto' is possible.

Answer: (b) Only two

Statement 1 is correct: the Rajya Sabha can amend or reject a Finance Bill (other than a Money Bill), like an ordinary bill.

Statement 2 is correct: on a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations within 14 days.

Statement 3 is incorrect: there is no joint sitting for a Money Bill, but a joint sitting is possible, not necessary, for a Finance Bill if the Houses disagree.

Answer: (b) Only two

Statement 1 is correct: under the Fifth Schedule, the President declares Scheduled Areas by order.

Statement 2 is correct: the largest unit is the district and the smallest is a cluster of villages in a block.

Statement 3 is incorrect: the Governor, not the Chief Minister, reports annually to the President on the administration of Scheduled Areas.

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is correct: in cases such as Indra Sawhney and M. Nagaraj, the Supreme Court held that reservations under Article 16(4) must be consistent with maintaining efficiency of administration under Article 335.

Statement-II is incorrect: Article 335 does not define 'efficiency of administration'.

Answer: (b) Only two

Statement 1 is correct: Article 355 makes it the Union's duty to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 22(3) excludes persons held under preventive detention from the right to consult a legal practitioner under Article 22(1).

Statement 3 is incorrect: POTA, 2002 made confessions to senior police officers (Superintendent of Police and above) admissible as evidence, subject to safeguards.

Answer: (a) Only one

Statement 1 is incorrect: nominated members are not part of the electoral college.

Statement 2 is incorrect: an MLA's vote value depends on the State's population divided by its number of elected seats (÷1000), not on the number of seats alone.

Statement 3 is incorrect: the vote value of a Madhya Pradesh MLA (131) is lower than that of a Kerala MLA (152).

Statement 4 is correct: a Puducherry MLA's vote (16) is worth more than an Arunachal Pradesh MLA's (8) because the population-to-seats ratio is higher.

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Statement-I is incorrect: the standard sizes in the Flag Code (e.g. 6300×4200, 3600×2400, 900×600, 450×300, 225×150 and 150×100 mm) do not include 600×400 mm.

Statement-II is correct: the ratio of length to height is 3:2.

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is correct: Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) is observed on 26 November (since 2015) to promote constitutional values.

Statement-II is incorrect: the Drafting Committee under Dr B. R. Ambedkar was set up on 29 August 1947. On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution.

Answer: (b) Only two

Statement 1 is incorrect: Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Acts and Rules of the respective States and Union Territories, not a central Act.

Statement 2 is correct: they serve as an auxiliary force to the police.

Statement 3 is correct: Border Wing Home Guards battalions have been raised in border States to help prevent infiltration.

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 followed the H.N. Sanyal Committee (1961) report.

Statement 2 is correct: Articles 129 and 215 make the Supreme Court and High Courts courts of record with power to punish for their own contempt.

Statement 3 is incorrect: civil and criminal contempt are defined in the 1971 Act, not in the Constitution.

Statement 4 is correct: Parliament can legislate on contempt of court (Entry 77 of the Union List and Entry 14 of the Concurrent List).

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: under the Advocates Act, 1961 an advocate is an individual enrolled on a State Bar Council roll. A law firm as such is not an advocate, and the Act does not single out corporate lawyers or patent attorneys for exclusion.

Statement 2 is correct: the Bar Council of India lays down standards of legal education and recognises universities and law colleges whose degrees qualify for enrolment.

This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: under Article 368 an amendment bill can be introduced in either House without the President's prior recommendation.

Statement 2 is correct: since the 24th Amendment (1971), the President must give assent to a duly passed Constitution Amendment Bill.

Statement 3 is correct: each House must pass it by a special majority, and there is no joint sitting if they disagree.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Constitution does not classify ministers into ranks; the categories of Cabinet Minister, Minister of State (Independent Charge), Minister of State and Deputy Minister come from convention and practice.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 75(1A), added by the 91st Amendment (2003), caps the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, at 15% of the total members of the Lok Sabha.

Answer: (b) 2 only

1 is not exclusive: a proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both Houses within one month (Article 352).

2 is exclusive: the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)), so only the Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion.

3 is not exclusive: impeachment of the President (Article 61) needs both Houses; either House can bring the charge.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Tenth Schedule lets a nominated member join a political party within six months of taking the seat; joining after six months leads to disqualification.

Statement 2 is correct: the Schedule sets no time limit for the Speaker or Chairman to decide a petition; the Supreme Court (Keisham Meghachandra Singh, 2020) has said it should normally be decided within three months, but that is not in the law.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: under Article 88 the Attorney General (not the Solicitor General) has the right to speak in and take part in proceedings of either House, without a vote; ministers also take part.

Statement 2 is incorrect: the Constitution sets no term and says nothing about resignation with the government; the AG holds office during the pleasure of the President, and resigning with a change of government is only a convention.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct: mandamus lies against public authorities, and against a private body only when it performs a public duty.

Statement 2 is incorrect: mandamus can issue against a government company, which is "State" under Article 12.

Statement 3 is correct: for quo warranto, which questions the right to hold a public office, any person may apply; the petitioner need not be personally aggrieved.

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct: Rule 8 of the Lok Sabha Rules says the election of the Deputy Speaker is held on a date fixed by the Speaker.

Statement 2 is incorrect: there is no mandatory provision on the party of the Deputy Speaker; offering the post to the opposition is only a convention.

Statement 3 is correct: when presiding, the Deputy Speaker has the Speaker's powers and no appeal lies against the rulings.

Statement 4 is incorrect: there is no such established practice that the Speaker moves the motion and the Prime Minister seconds it; the motion is moved and seconded by members.

Answer: (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

Under the Fifth Schedule, the Governor may make regulations for a Scheduled Area that prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among tribal people, which in practice bars transfer of tribal land to non-tribals.

It does not create autonomous councils (that is the Sixth Schedule), does not make the area a Union Territory and does not confer special category status.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct: the British Parliament is sovereign, whereas the Indian Parliament's law-making power is limited by the Constitution, federal division and judicial review.

Statement 2 is correct: cases involving a substantial question of constitutional interpretation, such as the validity of amendments, go to a Constitution Bench of at least five judges (Article 145(3)).

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Statement 1 is treated as correct: the Gopalaswami Ayyangar report (1949) on reorganising the machinery of government stressed a dedicated focus on administrative improvement, which led to the O&M Division (1954).

Statement 2 is correct: following the ARC (1966), the Department of Personnel was created in 1970 in the Cabinet Secretariat under the Prime Minister.

This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.

Answer: (c) Article 21

In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge bench held that the right to privacy is part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 (and of Part III as a whole).

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: since 1996 Section 33(7) of the Representation of the People Act limits a candidate to two constituencies.

Statement 2 is correct: in 1991 Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies (Sikar, Rohtak and Ferozepur).

Statement 3 is incorrect: no rule makes the party pay for bye-elections; this has only been proposed by the Election Commission.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: in judicial custody the accused is held in jail under the magistrate's custody; police custody means the police station lock-up.

Statement 2 is correct: during judicial custody the police need the court's permission to interrogate the accused.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: parole is a conditional, discretionary release and not a matter of right, even when a case is made out.

Statement 2 is correct: prisons are a State subject, and each State has its own parole and furlough rules.

Answer: (a) Article 14

Unguided, uncontrolled discretion allows arbitrary and unequal treatment, so such a law violates Article 14 (equality before law), as held in cases like E.P. Royappa and Maneka Gandhi.

Answer: (a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.

A federation needs an independent judiciary to interpret the Constitution and settle disputes between the Union and the States, so this is the essential federal feature among the options.

Elected representatives of units, regional parties in the cabinet or enforceable rights are not by themselves federal markers.

This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.

Answer: (a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government

The classic definition of a State has four elements: population, a definite territory, government and sovereignty (independence from external control), which option (a) captures.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct: under Article 128 the Chief Justice of India, with the President's prior consent, can request a retired Supreme Court judge to sit and act as a judge.

Statement 2 is correct: High Courts, as courts of record, can review their own judgments (Article 215 and the Code of Civil Procedure), as the Supreme Court can under Article 137.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: India has single citizenship and one domicile across the country.

Statement 2 is incorrect: any citizen, by birth or naturalisation, can become President.

Statement 3 is incorrect: under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955, a naturalised or registered citizen can be deprived of citizenship (for example, for fraud or disloyalty).

Answer: (d) Separation of powers

Separation of powers among the legislature, executive and judiciary, with checks and balances, prevents concentration of power and is the best safeguard of liberty (Montesquieu).

Answer: (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy

Article 39(c), a Directive Principle, asks the State to ensure that the economic system does not result in concentration of wealth to the common detriment.

Answer: (b) Legal right available to any person

The 44th Amendment (1978) removed the right to property from the Fundamental Rights; it is now a constitutional and legal right under Article 300A, available to every person, not just citizens.

Answer: (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

On 26 January 1950 the Preamble declared India a "Sovereign Democratic Republic".

"Socialist" and "Secular" were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.

Answer: (d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Constitutional government (constitutionalism) means limited government: its powers are defined and restricted by the Constitution, protecting citizens against arbitrary rule.

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: in Puttaswamy (Aadhaar, 2018) the Supreme Court limited retention of authentication metadata to six months, not three.

Statement 2 is correct: the Court struck down Section 57, which had let private bodies use Aadhaar, so the State cannot contract with private corporations to share Aadhaar data.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Aadhaar is not mandatory for insurance or other private services.

Statement 4 is correct: under Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, Aadhaar can be required for subsidies and benefits funded from the Consolidated Fund of India.

This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.

Answer: (b) amending the Constitution

A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by each House separately by special majority, and there is no joint sitting, so the Rajya Sabha has equal power in amending the Constitution.

Creating new All India Services needs a Rajya Sabha resolution (Article 312, a special power), while removing the government and cut motions belong to the Lok Sabha.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Statement 1 is correct: MPLADS works must create durable community assets.

Statement 2 is correct: at least 15% of the funds go to areas inhabited by SCs and 7.5% to areas inhabited by STs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: MPLADS funds are non-lapsable, so unspent money carries forward.

Statement 4 is correct: the district authority must inspect at least 10% of works every year.

Answer: (d) Right to Equality

Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice; it falls under the Right to Equality (Articles 14–18).

Answer: (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy

Article 50, a Directive Principle, directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Answer: (d) limited government

A constitutional government is limited government: its powers are defined and restrained by a constitution, the rule of law and the rights of citizens.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The UDHR's ideals of dignity, liberty and equality appear in the Preamble, its social and economic rights in the Directive Principles, and duties to the community (Article 29 of the UDHR) in the Fundamental Duties.

All three reflect the Declaration.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, free legal aid goes to persons below the notified income limit (₹1 lakh in the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee's scheme) and, under State rules, to transgender persons below a specified limit (₹2 lakh in Delhi).

Membership of the OBC category is not a ground by itself, and senior citizens are covered only where State rules provide, not all senior citizens.

This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.

Answer: (b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

In a parliamentary system the executive (Council of Ministers) comes from the legislature, is collectively responsible to it and can be removed by a no-confidence vote.

Answer: (a) Directive Principles of State Policy

The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, e.g. Articles 38, 39 and 41–47) set out the goal of a welfare state, directing the State to secure social, economic and political justice.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Constitution does not define its basic structure; the doctrine was laid down by the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) and later cases.

Statement 2 is correct: through Articles 13, 32 and 226, the Constitution provides for judicial review to protect rights and constitutional ideals.

Answer: (a) the final goal of a stateless society

Both Gandhi and Marx saw a stateless society as the ideal end-state: Gandhi's enlightened anarchy of self-regulating individuals, and Marx's withering away of the State under communism.

They differed on class struggle, private property (Gandhi favoured trusteeship) and economic determinism.

Answer: (d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

The bureaucracy is the permanent executive whose core role is to implement public policy and laws made by the political executive and the legislature.

Answer: (d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

In Kesavananda Bharati (1973) the Supreme Court held the Preamble to be part of the Constitution.

It is not enforceable in a court on its own; it guides the interpretation of the other provisions.

Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only

Under Article 37 the Directive Principles in Part IV are not enforceable by any court, but they are fundamental in governance, and the State must apply them in making laws.

So statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: under Article 164(4) a non-member can be a minister for six months, but he or she must be qualified to be a member of the legislature (for example, at least 25 years old), which is more than merely being eligible to vote.

Statement 2 is incorrect: under Section 8 of the RP Act, a person sentenced to two years or more is disqualified for the term of imprisonment plus six years after release, not permanently.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct: under Article 85 the President summons each House to meet at such time and place as he or she thinks fit.

Statement 2 is incorrect: the Constitution does not provide for three sessions; it only requires that six months must not pass between two sessions. The three sessions are a convention.

Statement 3 is correct: there is no minimum number of sitting days in a year.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: it was the 39th Amendment (1975) that placed the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review; the 44th Amendment (1978) repealed that provision.

Statement 2 is correct: in 2015 the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment, which created the National Judicial Appointments Commission, as violating the independence of the judiciary, a part of the basic structure.

Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 the Speaker (or Chairman) may admit or refuse to admit the motion.

Statement 2 is incorrect: the Constitution does not define 'incapacity' or 'proved misbehaviour'.

Statement 3 is correct: the procedure is set out in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

Statement 4 is correct: the motion must be passed in each House by a majority of total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting.

Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act, 1951, under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, to protect land reform laws from judicial review.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 is correct: the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 lists offices whose holders are not disqualified as holding an 'office of profit'.

Statement 2 is accepted as correct by the official key: the Act has been amended several times (the count of five is debated).

Statement 3 is incorrect: the Constitution does not define 'office of profit'; courts have laid down the tests.

This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.

Answer: (b) Fifth Schedule

The Fifth Schedule governs Scheduled Areas; in Samatha (1997) the Supreme Court held that transfer of tribal land in Scheduled Areas to private parties for mining is null and void.

Answer: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

Article 142 lets the Supreme Court pass any decree or order needed for 'complete justice'; the Court has held that limits in ordinary laws do not restrict this constitutional power.

So the Supreme Court is not constrained by laws made by Parliament when exercising it.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct: under Article 176 the Governor addresses the Legislature at the start of the first session each year.

Statement 2 is accepted as correct in the official key: where a State Legislature's rules are silent, it follows Lok Sabha practice.

Answer: (b) Article 21

The Supreme Court (Shafin Jahan/Hadiya case, 2018, and Shakti Vahini, 2018) held that the right to marry a person of one's choice is part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.

(The English source listed Article 25 twice; option (b) is Article 21 as in the Hindi booklet.)

Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)

The Sarkaria Commission (1983) recommended that the Governor be an eminent person from outside the State, a detached figure not too closely tied to local politics, who has not been active in politics in the recent past.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Independent regulators are reviewed by Parliament through ad hoc committees and the Department-Related Standing Committees.

The Finance Commission, the FSLRC (which made recommendations, not ongoing reviews) and NITI Aayog do not review them.

Answer: (c) 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the 2017 amendment gives 26 weeks of paid leave, of which up to 8 weeks may be before delivery.

Statement 2 is incorrect: establishments with crèches must allow four visits a day.

Statement 3 is correct: women with two or more children get 12 weeks instead of 26.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: High Courts can declare central laws unconstitutional under Article 226.

Statement 2 is incorrect: under the basic structure doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973), the Supreme Court can strike down constitutional amendments.

Answer: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

In political theory, liberty in its positive sense means the opportunity to develop oneself fully; mere absence of restraint or doing whatever one likes is not liberty.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: in the first Lok Sabha the largest opposition party was the Communist Party of India; the Swatantra Party was founded only in 1959.

Statement 2 is correct: Ram Subhag Singh was recognised as the first Leader of the Opposition in 1969.

Statement 3 is incorrect: by convention the party needs 10% of the House's strength (55 members), not 75.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: Parliament can add a law to the Ninth Schedule by a constitutional amendment (Article 31B).

Statement 2 is incorrect: in I. R. Coelho (2007) the Supreme Court held that laws added after 24 April 1973 can be reviewed if they violate the basic structure.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: Aadhaar is proof of identity and address, not of citizenship or domicile.

Statement 2 is incorrect: UIDAI can deactivate or omit an Aadhaar number under the Aadhaar Act and regulations.

Answer: (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation checks whether the executive is properly using powers delegated by the Constitution or by Parliament to make rules, regulations and by-laws.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: under the RTE Act the minimum qualifications for teachers are laid down by the academic authority notified by the Centre, the NCTE, not State councils.

Statement 2 is correct: a teacher must pass a Teacher Eligibility Test held under NCTE guidelines.

Statement 3 is incorrect: over 90% of teacher education institutions are privately run.

This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 and other food laws.

Statement 2 is incorrect: FSSAI is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Health with its own Chairperson and CEO, not under the Director General of Health Services.

Answer: (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

Statement (c) is not correct: under Article 110 a Money Bill covers appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India, not the Contingency Fund.

The other three are matters listed in Article 110(1).

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: an MLA's vote value depends on the State's population divided by its number of MLAs, so it differs between States.

Statement 2 is incorrect: every MP, of either House, has the same vote value.

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: under Article 179 the Speaker vacates office on ceasing to be a member of the Assembly.

Statement 2 is incorrect: on dissolution the Speaker continues until just before the first meeting of the new Assembly.

Answer: (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

Laws create the conditions in which liberty can be exercised and protected; without law there would be anarchy and no real liberty.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Both are correct: Article 361(2) bars criminal proceedings against a Governor during the term of office, and Article 158(4) says the Governor's emoluments and allowances cannot be reduced during the term.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Rule of law means limits on government power, equality before law, and protection of liberty and civil rights.

'People's responsibility to the Government' is not a feature; the rule of law makes the government accountable to the people.

Answer: (b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

Under Article 356(1)(b) the President can declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament.

The Assembly is not automatically dissolved, Article 19 is not suspended, and Parliament (not the President directly) makes the State's laws.

Answer: (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

In K. S. Puttaswamy (2017) the Supreme Court held that privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and of the freedoms in Part III.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: a private member's bill is introduced by any MP who is not a minister, elected or nominated.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Parliament has passed 14 private members' bills; the last one became law in 1970.

Answer: (a) Privileges

Equality in society means no person or group enjoys special privileges; everyone has the same rights and opportunities.

Answer: (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

The 42nd Amendment (1976) added Article 43A, participation of workers in the management of industries, along with Articles 39A and 48A.

Equal pay, living wage and right to work were in the original Constitution.

Answer: (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

Rights are claims of individuals against the State, which the State recognises and protects.

Answer: (b) Democratic decentralisation

Local self-government transfers power to elected local bodies (panchayats, municipalities), so it is an exercise in democratic decentralisation.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directive Principles are not enforceable by courts (Article 37); they are guidelines for law-making and governance, not limitations on legislative or executive functions.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: no legislative process is provided in the Constitution to enforce Fundamental Duties.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties are moral obligations, not correlative to legal duties.

Answer: (b) Economic liberty

The Preamble promises liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.

Economic liberty is not mentioned; the Preamble speaks of economic justice.

Answer: (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

Democracy's chief merit is that it draws ordinary men and women into public life, calling on their intelligence and character.

Answer: (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

In a parliamentary system the executive is drawn from and remains responsible to the legislature, which can remove it through a no-confidence vote.

Answer: (a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

Rights and duties are correlative: every right implies a duty on others and on the right-holder to respect others' rights.

Answer: (a) The Preamble

The Preamble is the key to the mind of the makers of the Constitution; it states the ideals and objectives they wanted to achieve.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

All three are tools of parliamentary control over the executive: adjournment motions raise urgent matters, Question Hour holds ministers to account, and supplementary questions probe their answers.

Answer: (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a candidate for the Lok Sabha must be a citizen of India registered as an elector in any parliamentary constituency.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: India uses first-past-the-post, so the candidate with the most votes wins, even under 50%.

Statement 2 is incorrect: the Constitution does not reserve the Deputy Speaker's post for the opposition; that is only a convention.

Answer: (c) Constitutional Right

The right to vote is grounded in Article 326 (adult suffrage) and the right to contest elections is regulated by the Constitution and the Representation of the People Act.

The official key treats it as a constitutional right; the Supreme Court has in some judgments called it a statutory right.

This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.

Answer: (d) 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Election Commission has three members (a CEC and two Election Commissioners).

Statement 2 is incorrect: the Commission itself decides election schedules.

Statement 3 is correct: it resolves disputes over splits and mergers of recognised parties under the Symbols Order, 1968.

Answer: (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

Judicial review is the power of courts to examine whether laws and executive actions conform to the Constitution and to strike them down if they do not.

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Under Article 356 the Council of Ministers is necessarily removed.

The Assembly may be dissolved or kept in suspended animation, and local bodies are not dissolved, so 1 and 3 are not necessary consequences.

Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only

The Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24) prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour and the employment of children in factories and mines.

Abolition of untouchability is in Article 17 and minority rights in Articles 29–30.

Answer: (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

Cabinet government rests on collective responsibility: the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and, through it, to the people.

Answer: (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Indian federalism is not the result of an agreement among the States; it was created by the Constitution, and States can be reorganised by Parliament ('an indestructible Union of destructible States').

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: prorogation ends a session but does not make pending Bills lapse; Bills pending in the Lok Sabha lapse only on its dissolution.

Statement 2 is correct: a Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that the Lok Sabha has not passed survives the Lok Sabha's dissolution.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Neither is correct as per the official key: the Chief Secretary is chosen by the Chief Minister (the appointment is an executive act of the State government), and the post has no fixed tenure.

This explanation is being checked by a subject expert.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: Gram Nyayalayas (Act of 2008) try both civil and criminal cases within set limits.

Statement 2 is correct: the Act allows social workers at the village level to be appointed as conciliators.

Answer: (d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Under Article 249, Parliament may legislate on a State List subject in the national interest if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of members present and voting.

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the minimum age to be a Panchayat member is 21 years (Article 243F).

Statement 2 is correct: under Article 243E a Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder of the original term.